VIVEK NARAYAN SHARMA v. UNION OF INDIA
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monetary policy. It is submitted that there cannot be a straitjacket formula A in the discharge of its duty. Learned A.G. submits that in any case, it is a settled law that this Court should not interfere with the opinion of experts and leave it to experts who are more familiar with the problems they face. Reliance in this respect is placed on the judgment of this Court in the case of Rajbir Singh Dalal (Dr.) v. Chaudhari Devi Lal B University, Sirsa and another37 and Secretary and Curator, Victoria Memorial Hall v. Howrah Ganatantrik Nagrik Samity and others 38.
6767. Relying on the judgment of this Court in the case of Bajaj Hindustan Limited v. Sir Shadi Lal Enterprises Limited and another39, the learned A.G. submits that economic and fiscal regulatory measures are a field where Judges should encroach upon very warily as C Judges are not experts in these matters.
6868. The learned A.G. submitted that the recommendation of the RBI and the decision of the Central Government was taken after taking into consideration that fake currency notes of the SBNs have largely been in circulation and it was difficult to identify genuine bank notes from the fake ones and to also address three serious problems viz., fake currency notes, storage of unaccounted wealth and terror financing. It is submitted that the material with regard to such factors cannot be considered overnight. It is submitted that the 2012 White Paper on Black Money throws light on the complexity of the problem. The information and data gathered from various agencies of the Government of India are required to be taken into consideration. It is submitted that both the RBI and the Central Government act in coordination with each other. The learned A.G. submits that the discussions over the issue have taken place over a long period of time and, after considering all the aspects, the RBI recommended demonetization and the Central Government took the decision to demonetize.
6969. The learned A.G. further submitted that the contention of the petitioners that demonetization has utterly failed to achieve its objectives as stated in the impugned Notification is also without substance. The learned A.G. submits that the repercussion of an action like the one under consideration can be best understood by considering the legal tender cessation measure not in isolation but by looking at the overall benefits 37 (2008) 9 SCC 284 38 (2010) 3 SCC 732 39 (2011) 1 SCC 640 H
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A flowing from such a measure. The learned A.G. submits that the benefits and advantages of such an action are direct as well as indirect. The learned A.G. submits that, as a result of the impugned action, there are direct benefits, like: (i) significant reduction in fake currency; B (ii) significant increase in the number of tax payers; (iii) 25% growth in filing income-tax returns; (iv) significant increase in returns filed by corporate tax payers; (v) substantial growth in new PAN numbers. C
7070. The learned A.G. submits that, whereas self-assessment tax in the year 2015-16 was Rs.55,000 crore and Rs.68,000 crore in the year 2016-2017, it has jumped to Rs.1,00,000 crore in the year 2017-18. The learned A.G. further submitted that, as a direct benefit of demonetization, the volume of Unified Payments Interface (UPI) D transactions shot up from 1.06 crore in 2016-2017 to 90.5 crore in 2017- 18 and further to about 5000 crore in 2021-22. The value of the UPI transactions also grew 1210 times in 2021-22 as compared to 2016-17. It is submitted that the real GDP growth in the year 2017-18 was higher than the average annual growth of 6.6% in the decade (2010-11 to 2019- 20). E
7171. The learned A.G. further submitted that there have also been various indirect benefits. Action against domestic black money resulted in undisclosed income of Rs.82,168 crores. Surveys conducted in 63,691 cases led to undisclosed income of Rs.84,396 crores getting deducted. The employees provident fund organization (EPFO) enrolment data saw F an increase of 1.1 crore new enrolments. It also saw 55% increase in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) registrations. It is, therefore, submitted that if the effect of impugned action is considered in a larger perspective, it will clearly show that there have been several direct as well as indirect benefits on account of the demonetization.
7272. The learned A.G. further submitted that, merely because in 1946 and 1978 the demonetization was effected by enactments of Parliament, cannot be a ground to hold that the Central Government does not have a power under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act. It is submitted that, in any case, the said argument does not hold H water inasmuch as what has been provided under the impugned
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notification is wholly ratified by the 2017 Act. It is submitted that once A the executive action is ratified by Parliament by way of legislation, the argument that since Parliament had chosen to do so in 1946 and 1978, the Central Government could not have done it under the impugned notification itself is contradictory.
7373. The learned A.G. submits that the perusal of the Parliamentary B debates while enacting the 1978 Act would clearly show that, though by the said Act only high denomination bank notes of the denominational value of Rs.1,000/-, Rs.5,000/- and Rs.10,000/- were demonetized, the Members of Parliament advocated for demonetization of even the bank notes of the denominational value of Rs.100. C
7474. The learned A.G. submits that the provisions of the 1978 Act have been found to be constitutional by the Constitution Bench Judgment of this Court in the case of Jayantilal Ratanchand Shah (supra). It is submitted that, for the reasoning adopted by the Constitution Bench in the said case, the impugned notification, which now stands ratified by the 2017 Act, also deserves to be upheld. D
7575. In respect of the submission made on behalf of the petitioners, that in order to address concern of the genuine difficulties of various persons who could not deposit the demonetized bank notes within the limited period, a window should be opened for a limited period; the learned A.G. submitted that if such is permitted, it would amount to devising a E norm which will alter the essential character of the enactment. It is submitted that, firstly, it is difficult to ascertain genuineness of the money. Such a request will have to be based on certain declarations being made by the party whose veracity cannot be verified. It is submitted that this would also provide a loophole for non-genuine bank note holders to channelize their unaccounted money through the window. It is submitted that, incidentally, the law enforcing agencies are still recovering significant amount of SBNs from the individuals.
7676. The learned A.G. further submitted that, as of now, Rs.10,719 crore of SBNs are still in circulation. It is submitted that in any case, in view of the provisions of clause (i) of sub-section (1) of Section 4 of the 2017 Act, 77,748 applications involving an amount of Rs.284.25 crore were received from resident and non-resident Indians by the five designated Regional Offices of the RBI during the grace period. Out of this, a total of 57,405 cases (74% of the total applications received) H
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A amounting to Rs.221.95 crore (78% of the total amount under these applications) have been accepted and the amounts have been credited to their KYC compliant bank accounts. It is submitted that out of the total cases, 20,343 cases were rejected due to various reasons. The learned A.G. submits that it will not be permissible for the Court to devise a norm which would result in altering the essential character of the enactment. In support of this submission, he relies on the judgment of United States Supreme Court in the case of Metropolis Theater Company et al v. City of Chicago and Ernest J. Magerstadt40.
7777. The learned A.G. lastly submits that the Court must not proceed for a formal judgment when it cannot grant any effectual relief. In this respect, he relies on the judgments of United States Supreme Court in the cases of North Carolina v. Wayne Claude RICE41 and Mills v. Green42 and the judgment of the Court of Appeal of New York in the case of People ex rel. Kingsland v. Clark43.
7878. Taking the line further, the learned A.G. submits that it is also D a settled proposition of law that the Court should not decide academic questions. In this respect, he relies on the judgment of this Court in the cases of Shrimanth Balasaheb Patil v. Speaker, Karnataka Legislative Assembly and others 44, Central Areca Nut & Cocoa Marketing & Processing Cooperative Ltd. v. State of Karnataka E and others45 and R.S. Nayak v. A.R. Antulay46. V. SUBMISSIONS OF THE RBI
7979. Shri Jaideep Gupta, learned Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of the RBI, would submit that the contention of the petitioners that the power under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act is uncanalised, F unguided and arbitrary is without any basis. He submits that sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act itself provides that the power by the Central Government has to be exercised on the recommendation of the Central Board. It is, therefore, submitted that there is an inbuilt safeguard in the provision itself. G 40 228 US 61 (1913) 41 404 U.S. 244 (1971) 42 159 U.S. 651 (1895) 43 25 Sickels 518 (1877)(Court of Appeals of New York) 44 (2020) 2 SCC 595 45 (1997) 8 SCC 31 46 H (1984) 2 SCC 183
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8080. Relying on the judgment of this Court in the case of Peerless A General Finance and Investment Co. Limited and another v. Reserve Bank of India47, it is submitted that the RBI, which is a bankers’ bank, has a large contingent of experts to render advice relating to matters affecting the economy of the entire country. It is submitted that the RBI plays an important role in the economy and financial affairs B of India and one of its important functions is to regulate the banking system in the country. It is submitted that the recommendation of the Central Board is based upon the advice of the experts that the RBI has in its contingent. Shri Gupta also relies on the judgment of the Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of Joseph Kuruvilla Velukunnel v. Reserve Bank of India and others48 in support of this submission. C
8181. Shri Gupta further submitted that the contention that the decision-making process is faulty on account of not following the procedure under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act is also without substance. The learned Senior Counsel submits that the procedure under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act contemplates two things i.e. recommendation of the Central Board and the decision by the Central Government. It is submitted that both these requirements stand fully satisfied in the present case. He submits that though it is the contention of the petitioners that the procedure is flawed, however, the petition itself is bereft of such averments. Shri Gupta submits that the Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of Ram Kishore Sen and others v. Union of India and others49 has held that the burden of proof primarily lies on a person who complains that the procedure prescribed has not been followed. In any case, he submits that in both the affidavits filed on behalf of the RBI i.e. the counter affidavit dated 19th December 2018filed by Haokholal, Assistant General Managerand theadditional affidavit dated 15th November 2022 ofShri Kuntal Kaim, Deputy General Manager,it has been specifically averred that the procedure as prescribed under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act read with Regulation 8 of the 1949 Regulations was duly followed. He submits that the quorum as prescribed under the 1949 Regulations was very much available when the meeting of the Central Board was held on 8th November 2016. In G any case, it is submitted that in view of sub-section (5) of Section 8 of the RBI Act, a decision of the Board cannot be questioned merely on 47 (1992) 2 SCC 343 48 1962 Supp (3) SCR 632 49 (1966) 1 SCR 430 H
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A the ground of existence of any vacancy or any defect in the constitution of the Board. The learned Senior Counsel has placed on record an additional affidavit dated 6th December, 2022 reiterating the statements made in the aforesaid two affidavits dated 19th December 2018 and 15th November 2022.
8282. Relying on the judgment of this Court in the case of Internet and Mobile Association of India (supra), Shri Gupta submits that to consider the question of proportionality, a four-pronged test, as set out in the judgment of this Court in the case of Modern Dental College and Research Centre and Others v. State of Madhya Pradesh and Others50 is required to be applied. It is submitted that since the measure is designated for the purpose of dealing with fake currency, black money and terror funding, the first test stands satisfied. The measure, i.e. demonetization, has a reasonable nexus for the fulfillment of the purpose of aforesaid three objectives and, as such, the second test is also fulfilled. Insofar as the third test is concerned, it is submitted that it is a matter of economic policy as to what measure is found to be appropriate for achieving the objective of dealing with the menace of aforesaid three evils. It is submitted that it is for the experts in the economic and monetary fields to take a decision in that regard and, as such, the third test, as to whether there was no alternative less invasive measure, would not be applicable to a decision pertaining to economic policy. Insofar as the fourth test is concerned, it is submitted that, as a matter of fact, there has been no infringement of the rights of the citizens. As a matter of fact, no currency is being taken away. Full value of the legitimate currency has been exchanged. It is submitted that non-cash transactions such as credit card, debit card, on-line transaction, etc. were permitted even during the period between 8th November 2016 and 31st December 2016. In any case, it is submitted that immediately after the demonetization was notified, in spite of enormity of operations, immediate steps were taken for the betterment of the public and to ensure adequate cash supply. It is submitted that various measures were taken in order to alleviate the genuine grievances of the citizens, which have been enumerated in paragraphs 11 to 17 of the affidavit dated 19th December 2018 filed on behalf of the RBI.It is, therefore, submitted that the proportionality test would not be applicable in the present case.
8383. Shri Gupta relying on the judgment of this Court in the case of Small Scale Industrial Manufactures Association (Registered) v. 50 H (2016) 7 SCC 353
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Union of India and others51 submits that normally, it is not within the domain of any court to weigh the pros and cons of the policy or to scrutinize it except only when it is found to be arbitrary and violative of any constitutional or any statutory provisions of law.
8484. Shri Gupta further submits that a similar provision providing for a specified time for exchange of notes has already been found to be valid by the Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of Jayantilal Ratanchand Shah (supra). He submits that the time provided in the present case is almost similar to the time provided under the 1978 Act. The said period has been found to be reasonable having regard to the purpose sought to be achieved by the said Act. It is, therefore, submitted that the challenge that the period provided was not sufficient is without any substance. It is submitted that everybody had sufficient opportunity either to deposit the notes in their banks or to exchange the same. He further submits that it was not necessary even for the individuals to go to Banks to exchange notes and on the prescribed procedure being followed, an authorized representative could also exchange the notes on their behalf. D
8585. Shri Gupta further submitted that the provisions of sub-section (2) of Section 4 of the 2017 Act cannot be read in isolation. He submits that if it is read in isolation, it will lead to an anomalous situation where the RBI has an independent power to act in violation of the provisions of Section 3 and sub-section (1) of Section 4 of the 2017 Act. He submits that Section 3 and sub-sections (1) and (2) of Section 4 of the 2017 Act E will have to be read together to hold that the power available to the RBI under sub-section (2) of Section 4 of the 2017 Act is with regard to the grace period as provided under sub-section (1) of Section 4 of the 2017 Act. It is submitted that the power vested in the Central Government under clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of Section 4 of the 2017 Act is to provide grace period to such class of persons and for such reasons as may be specified by notification. However, such power has not been exercised by the Central Government and, therefore, it cannot be construed that the RBI will have an independent power in this regard.
8686. Shri Gupta reiterated the submission made by the learned A.G. that since the relief sought in the petitions cannot be granted, no declaration as sought should be granted by this Court. In this respect, he relies on the judgment of this Court in the case of Bholanath Mukherjee and others v. Ramakrishna Mission Vivekananda Centenary College and others52. 51 (2021) 8 SCC 511 52 (2011) 5 SCC 464 H
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A VI. SUBMISSIONS IN REJOINDER
8787. Shri P. Chidambaram, learned Senior Counsel, in rejoinder, almost reiterated his earlier submissions. He submitted that there are two methods of demonetization of currency, one is by legislative method and the other under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act. He B reiterated that the word “any” will always have to be read in the context of the provisions and if read in that manner, the only meaning that can be given to the word “any” in sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI is “some”. In this respect, he relies on the judgment of this Court in the case of Union of India v. A.B. Shah and others53.
8888. Shri Chidambaram further submitted that from the perusal of the affidavit filed on behalf of the Central Government as well as the RBI, it is clear that the procedure emanated from the Central Government, which was through the advice given by the Government to the RBI in its communication dated 7th November 2016. The affidavit would clearly show that the RBI acted on the advice of the Central Government and D gave its recommendation in a mechanical manner. He reiterated that, as per sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act, the proposal has to emanate from the RBI and not from the Central Government. It is reiterated that the procedure is in total breach of sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act.
8989. Shri Chidambaram submits that unless the documents, to which he had already referred in his arguments while opening the case, are placed for perusal of this Court, the Court cannot come to a satisfaction about the correctness of the decision-making process. Relying on the judgment of this Court in the case of R.K. Jain v. Union of India54, he F submits that unless the respondents plead privilege and the issue is decided, the respondent cannot withhold the said documents, at least from this Court.
9090. Relying on an excerpt from “Forks in the Road: My Days at RBI and Beyond”, a book by former RBI Governor C. Rangarajan, Shri G Chidambaram submits that demonetization has nothing to do with monetary policy. Emphasizing on the judgment of this Court in the case of Internet and Mobile Association of India (supra), the learned Senior Counsel submits that the proportionality test will have to be satisfied in 53 (1996) 8 SCC 540 54 H (1993) 4 SCC 119
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the present case. It is submitted that the 2017 Act does not validate the A action taken under the impugned Notification. It only extinguishes the liabilities of the Issue Department of the RBI. The learned Senior Counsel, therefore, submits that this is a fit case wherein this Court should decide the scope of sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act and declare that the exercise of power by the Central Government under sub-section B (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act was not valid in law. In this respect, he relies on the judgment of this Court in the case of S.R. Bommai and others v. Union of India and others55.
9191. Shri Shyam Divan, learned Senior Counsel, in rejoinder, submits that the perusal of sub-section (1) of Section 26 of the RBI Act would reveal that, though the tendering of any series of bank notes of any denomination ceases to be a legal one under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act, the guarantee of the Central Government continues to exist. It is submitted that it would be clear from the provisions contained in the 2016 Ordinance, which became the 2017 Act, that Section 3 of the 2017 Act which provides that the SBNs which have ceased to be legal tender in view of the impugned notification, shall cease to be liabilities of the RBI under Section 34 of the RBI Act and shall cease to have the guarantee of the Central Government under sub-section (1) of Section 26 of the said Act. It is submitted that this is also clear from the affidavit dated 16th November 2022 filed on behalf of the Union of India. E
9292. Shri Divan further submitted that the 2017 Act can neither be construed to validate the impugned notification nor can it be held that it is a piece of incorporation by reference. It is submitted that the argument with regard to the impugned notification having merged in the 2017 Act is also without substance. The learned Senior Counsel submits that it is simply a plenary parliamentary declaration. F
9393. Taking further his argument, Shri Divan submits that clause (i) of sub-section (1) of Section 4 of the 2017 gives a power to the Central Government which is coupled with a duty. It is submitted that genuine cases like that of the applicants/petitioners viz., Malvinder Singh and Sarla Shrivastav, who is the applicant/petitioner in I.A. No. 152009 G of 2022, should be given some window to exchange the SBNs. It is submitted that there is a large section of NRIs who, during the period between 8th November 2016 and 30th December 2016, were not in India. It is submitted that they could have also not travelled to India since 55 (1994) 3 SCC 1 H
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A either the tickets were not available or the rates were prohibitively expensive.
9494. Shri Divan, in the alternative, submitted that the proviso to the Notification dated 30th December, 2016 has to be read in a manner that it is silent on NRIs who have kept their money in India. It is submitted B that exclusion of NRIs who have left their money in India would be manifestly arbitrary and in order to save the proviso, it will have to be read in the manner making it inapplicable to such NRIs who had kept their money in India while residing abroad during that period. VII. REFRAMED QUESTIONS
9595. Though nine important questions have been framed by the Bench of learned three Judges vide order dated 16th December 2016 in Writ Petition (Civil) No.906 of 2016, upon hearing the submissions advanced before us on behalf of the petitioners as well as the respondents, we find that only the following questions of law arise for consideration. D As such, the questions are reframed as under: (i) Whether the power available to the Central Government under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act can be restricted to mean that it can be exercised only for “one” or “some” series of bank notes and not “all” series in view E of the word “any” appearing before the word “series” in the said sub-section, specifically so, when on earlier two occasions, the demonetization exercise was done through the plenary legislations? (ii) In the event it is held that the power under sub-section (2) F of Section 26 of the RBI Act is construed to mean that it can be exercised in respect of “all” series of bank notes, whether the power vested with the Central Government under the said sub-section would amount to conferring excessive delegation and as such, liable to be struck down? (iii) As to whether the impugned Notification dated 8 th G November 2016 is liable to be struck down on the ground that the decision making process is flawed in law? (iv) As to whether the impugned notification dated 8th November 2016 is liable to be struck down applying the test of proportionality? H
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(v) As to whether the period provided for exchange of notes vide the impugned notification dated 8th November 2016 can be said to be unreasonable? (vi) As to whether the RBI has an independent power under sub-section (2) of Section 4 of the 2017 Act in isolation of provisions of Section 3 and Section 4(1) thereof to accept the demonetized notes beyond the period specified in notifications issued under sub-section (1) of Section 4? VIII. STATUTORY SCHEME
9696. Before we proceed to consider the various issues reframed by us, we find it appropriate to refer to the scheme of the RBI Act. C
9797. The preamble of the RBI Act would itself reveal that the RBI Act was enacted since it was found expedient to constitute a Reserve Bank of India to regulate the issue of Bank notes and for the keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage. D The preamble of the RBI Act would also show that it was amended in the year 2016 with effect from 27th June 2016 by Act No. 28 of 2016. Post amendment, it was stated in the preamble that, whereas it was essential to have a modern monetary policy framework to meet the challenge of an increasingly complex economy, and whereas the primary objective of the monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth and whereas the monetary policy framework in India shall be operated by the RBI, the RBI Act was enacted.
9898. Section 3 of the RBI Act would reveal that the RBI was constituted for the purposes of taking over the management of the currency from the Central Government and of carrying on the business of banking in accordance with the provisions of the RBI Act.
9999. Section 8 of the RBI Act deals with composition of the Central Board and term of office of the Directors. It will be relevant to refer to sub-sections (1) and (5) of Section 8 of the RBI, which read thus: “8. Composition of the Central Board, and term of office of Directors.— (1) The Central Board shall consist of the following Directors, namely:- H
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A (a) a Governor and not more than four Deputy Governors to be appointed by the Central Government; (b) four Directors to be nominated by the Central Government, one from each of the four Local Boards as constituted by section 9; B (c) ten Directors to be nominated by the Central Government; and (d) two Government officials to be nominated by the Central Government.
C xxx xxx xxx xxx xxx xxx (5) No act or proceeding of the Board shall be questioned on the ground merely of the existence of any vacancy in, or any defect in the constitution of, the Board.” D
100100. Section 17 of the RBI Act would reveal that the RBI has been authorised to carry on and transact several kinds of business specified therein.
101101. Section 22 of the RBI Act would reveal that the RBI shall have the sole right to issue bank notes in India and may, for a period E which shall be fixed by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Central Board, issue currency notes of the Government of India supplied to it by the Central Government. It further provides that the provisions of the RBI Act applicable to bank notes shall, unless a contrary intention appears, apply to all currency notes of the Government of India F issued either by the Central Government or by the RBI in like manner as if such currency notes were bank notes. Sub-section (2) of Section 22 of the RBI Act specifically provides that on and from the date on which Chapter III of the RBI Act comes into force, the Central Government shall not issue any currency notes.
102102. Section 23 of the RBI Act would reveal that the issue of bank notes shall be conducted by the RBI through an Issue Department which shall be separated and kept wholly distinct from the Banking Department, and the assets of the Issue Department shall not be subject to any liability other than the liabilities of the Issue Department as defined in Section 34. Sub-section (2) of Section 23 provides that the Issue H
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Department shall not issue bank notes to the Banking Department or to any other person except in exchange for other bank notes or for such coin, bullion or securities as are permitted by the RBI Act to form part of the Reserve.
103103. Sub-section (1) of Section 24 of the RBI Act provides that, subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), bank notes shall be of the denominational values to two rupees, five rupees, ten rupees, twenty rupees, fifty rupees, one hundred rupees, five hundred rupees, one thousand rupees, five thousand rupees and ten thousand rupees or of such other denominational values, not exceeding ten thousand rupees as the Central Government may, on the recommendation of the Central Board, specify in this behalf. Sub-section (2) of Section 24 of the RBI C Act provides that the Central Government may, on the recommendation of the Central Board, direct the non-issue or the discontinuance of issue of bank notes of such denominational values as it may specify in this behalf.
104104. Section 25 of the RBI Act provides that the design, form and D the material of bank notes shall be such as may be approved by the Central Government after consideration of the recommendations made by the Central Board.
105105. Section 26 of the RBI is the provision which directly falls for consideration. The same reads thus: E
“26. Legal tender character of notes.-(1) Subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), every bank note shall be legal tender at any place in India in payment, or on account for the amount expressed therein, and shall be guaranteed by the Central Government. F (2) On recommendation of the Central Board the Central Government may, by notification in the Gazette of India, declare that, with effect from such date as may be specified in the notification, any series of bank notes of any denomination shall cease to be legal tender save at such office or agency of the G Bank and to such extent as may be specified in the notification.”
106106. It can thus be seen that sub-section (1) of Section 26 of the RBI Act provides that, subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), every bank note shall be legal tender at any place in India in payment, or on account for the amount expressed therein, and shall be guaranteed by H
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A the Central Government. Sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act provides that on recommendation of the Central Board, the Central Government may, by notification in the Gazette of India, declare that, with effect from such date as may be specified in the notification, any series of bank notes of any denomination shall cease to be legal tender save at such office or agency of the Bank and to such extent as may be B specified in the notification.
107107. Section 34 of the RBI Act provides that the liabilities of the Issue Department of the RBI shall be an amount equal to the total of the amount of the currency notes of the Government of India and bank notes for the time being in circulation. C
108108. Perusal of the aforesaid provisions of the RBI Act would reveal that insofar as monetary policy and specifically with regard to the matters of management and regulation of currency are concerned, the RBI plays a pivotal role. As a matter of fact, both the sides are ad idem on the said issue. D
109109. The importance of the role assigned to the RBI in such matters would be amplified from the various judgments of this Court, which we will refer to in the paragraphs to follow. In this background, we will consider the issues that fall for our consideration.
E ISSUE NO. (i) : WHETHER THE POWER AVAILABLE TO THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT UNDER SUB-SECTION (2) OF SECTION 26 OF THE RBI ACT CAN BE RESTRICTED TO MEAN THAT IT CAN BE EXERCISED ONLY FOR “ONE” OR “SOME” SERIES OF BANK NOTES AND NOT “ALL” SERIES IN VIEW OF THE WORD “ANY” APPEARING F BEFORE THE WORD “SERIES” IN THE SAID SUB- SECTION, SPECIFICALLY SO, WHEN ON EARLIER TWO OCCASIONS, THE DEMONETIZATION EXERCISE WAS DONE THROUGH THE PLENARY LEGISLATIONS?
110110. It is strenuously urged by the learned Senior Counsel appearing G on behalf of the petitioners that the word “any” used in sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act will have to be given a restricted meaning to mean “some”. It is submitted that if sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act is not read in such manner, the very power available under the said sub-section will have to be held to be invalid on the ground of excessive delegation. It is submitted that it cannot be construed that the H
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legislature intended to bestow uncanalised, unguided and arbitrary power to the Central Government to demonetize the entire currency. It is, therefore, the submission of the petitioners that in order to save the said Section from being declared void, the word “any” requires to be interpreted in a restricted manner to mean “some”.
111111. Per contra, it is submitted on behalf of the respondents that the word “any” under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act, cannot be interpreted in a narrow manner and it will have to be construed to include “all”. Precedents construing the word “any”
112112. A Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of The Chief C Inspector of Mines and another v. Lala Karam Chand Thapar etc. (supra)was considering the question as to whether the phrase “any one of the directors” as found in Section 76 of the Mines Act, 1952 could mean “only one of the directors” or could it be construed to mean “every one of the directors”. In the said case, all the directors of the Company D were prosecuted for the offences punishable under Sections 73 and 74 of the Mines Act, 1952. The High Court had held that any ‘one’ of the directors of the Company could only be prosecuted. The Constitution Bench of this Court observed thus: “It is quite clear and indeed not disputed that in some contexts, “any one” means “one only it matters not which one” the phrase “any of the directors” is therefore quite capable of meaning “only one of the directors, it does not matter which one”. Is the phrase however capable of no other meaning? If it is not, the courts cannot look further, and must interpret these words in that meaning only, irrespective of what the intention of the legislature might be believed to have been. If however the phrase is capable of another meaning, as suggested, viz., “every one of the directors” it will be necessary to decide which of the two meanings was intended by the legislature. If one examines the use of the words “any one” in common conversation or literature, there can be no doubt that they are not infrequently used to mean “every one” — not one, but all. Thus we say of any one can see that this is wrong, to mean “everyone can see that this is wrong”. “Any one may enter” does not mean that “only one person may enter”, but H
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A that all may enter. It is permissible and indeed profitable to turn in this connection to the Oxford English Dictionary, at p. 378, of which, we find the meaning of “any” given thus: “In affirmative sentences, it asserts, concerning a being or thing of the sort named, without limitation as to which, and thus collectively of every one of them”. One of the illustrations given is — “I challenge anyone to contradict my assertions”. Certainly, this does not mean that one only is challenged; but that all are challenged. It is abundantly clear therefore that “any one” is not infrequently used to mean “every one”. But, argues Mr Pathak, granting that this is so, it must be held that when the phrase “any one” is used with the preposition “of”, followed by a word denoting a number of persons, it never means “every one”. The extract from the Oxford Dictionary, it is interesting to notice, speaks of an assertion “concerning a being or thing of the sort named”; it is not unreasonable to say that, the word “of” followed by a word denoting a number of persons or things is just such “naming of a sort” as mentioned there. Suppose, the illustration “I challenge any one to contradict my assertions” was changed to “I challenge any one of my opponents to contradict my assertion”. “Any one of my opponents” here would mean “all my opponents” — not one only of the opponents. E While the phrase “any one of them” or any similar phrase consisting of “any one”, followed by “of” which is followed in its turn by words denoting a number of persons or things, does not appear to have fallen for judicial construction, in our courts or in England — the phrase “any of the present directors” had to be interpreted in an old English case, Isle of Wight Railway Co. v. Tahourdin [25 Chancery Division 320] . A number of shareholders required the directors to call a meeting of the company for two objects. One of the objects was mentioned as “To remove, if deemed necessary or expedient any of the present directors, and to elect directors to fill any vacancy on the Board”. The directors issued a notice to convene a meeting for the other object and held the meeting. Then the shareholders, under the Companies Clauses Act, 1845, issued a notice of their own convening a meeting for both the objects in the original requisition. In an action by the directors to restrain the requisitionists, from holding the H
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meeting, the Court of Appeal held that a notice to remove “any of the present directors” would justify a resolution for removing all who are directors at the present time. “Any”, Lord Cotton, L.J. pointed out, would involve “all”. It is true that the language there was “any of the present directors” and not “any one of the present directors” and it is urged that the word “one”, in the latter phrase makes all the difference. We think it will be wrong to put too much emphasis on the word “one” here. It may be pointed out in this connection that the Permanent Edition of Words and Phrases, mentions an American case Front & Hintingdon Building & Loan Association v. Berzinski where the words “any of them” were held to be the equivalent of “any one of them”. After giving the matter full and anxious consideration, we have come to the conclusion that the words “any one of the directors” is ambiguous; in some contexts, it means “only one of the directors, does not matter which one”, but in other contexts, it is capable of meaning “every one of the directors”. Which of these two meanings was intended by the legislature in any particular statutory phrase has to be decided by the courts on a consideration of the context in which the words appear, and in particular, the scheme and object of the legislation.” [emphasis supplied]
113113. The Constitution Bench found that the words “any one” has been commonly used to mean “every one” i.e. not one, but all. It found that the word “any”, in affirmative sentences, asserts, concerning a being or thing of the sort named, without limitation. It held that it is abundantly clear that the word “any one” is not infrequently used to mean “every one”.
114114. It could be seen that the Constitution Bench, after giving the matter full and anxious consideration, came to the conclusion that the words “any one of the directors” was an ambiguous one. It held that in some contexts, it means “only one of the directors, does not matter which one”, but in other contexts, it is capable of meaning “every one of the directors”. It held that which of these two meanings was intended by the legislature in any particular statutory phrase has to be decided by the H
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A courts on consideration of the context in which the words appear, and in particular, the scheme and object of the legislation.
115115. After examining the scheme of the Mines Act, 1952, the Constitution Bench of this Court further observed thus: “But, argues Mr Pathak, one must not forget the special rule of interpretation for “penal statute” that if the language is ambiguous, the interpretation in favour of the accused should ordinarily be adopted. If you interpret “any one” in the sense suggested by him, the legislation he suggests is void and so the accused escapes. One of the two possible constructions, thus being in favour of the accused, should therefore be adopted. In our opinion, there is no substance in this contention. The rule of strict interpretation of penal statutes in favour of the accused is not of universal application, and must be considered along with other well-established rules of interpretation. We have already seen that the scheme and object of the statute makes it reasonable to think that the legislature intended to subject all the directors of a company owning coal mines to prosecution and penalties, and not one only of the directors. In the face of these considerations there is no scope here of the application of the rule for strict interpretation of penal statutes in favour of the accused. E The High Court appears to have been greatly impressed by the fact that in other statutes where the legislature wanted to make every one out of a group or a class of persons liable it used clear language expressing the intention; and that the phrase “any one” has not been used in any other statute in this country to express “every one”. It will be unreasonable, in our opinion, to F attach too much weight to this circumstance; and as for the reasons mentioned above, we think the phrase “any one of the directors” is capable of meaning “every one of the directors”, the fact that in other statutes, different words were used to express a similar meaning is not of any significance. G We have, on all these considerations come to the conclusion that the words “any one of the directors” has been used in Section 76 to mean “every one of the directors”, and that the contrary interpretation given by the High Court is not correct.” H [emphasis supplied]
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116116. It could thus be seen that though it was sought to be argued before the Court that since the rule of strict interpretation of penal statutes in favour of the accused has to be adopted and that the word “any” was suffixed by the word “one”, it has to be given restricted meaning; the Court came to the conclusion that the words “any one of the directors” used in Section 76 of the Mines Act, 1952 would mean “every one of the directors”. It is further to be noted that the word “any” in the said case was suffixed by the word “one”, still the Court held that the words “any one” would mean “all” and not “one”. It is to be noted that in the present case, the legislature has not employed the word “one” after the word “any”. It is settled law that it has to be construed that every single word employed or not employed by the legislature has a purpose behind it. C
117117. On the very date on which the judgment in the case of The Chief Inspector of Mines and another v. Lala Karam Chand Thapar etc. (supra) was pronounced, the same Constitution Bench also pronounced the judgment in the case of Banwarilal Agarawalla (supra), wherein the Constitution Bench observed thus: D “The first contention is based on an assumption that the word “any one” in Section 76 means only “one of the directors, and only one of the shareholders”. This question as regards the interpretation of the word “any one” in Section 76 was raised in Criminal Appeals Nos. 98 to 106 of 1959 (Chief Inspector of Mines, E etc.) and it has been decided there that the word “any one” should be interpreted there as “every one”. Thus under Section 76 every one of the shareholders of a private company owning the mine, and every one of the directors of a public company owning the mine is liable to prosecution. No question of violation of Article 14 therefore arises.” F
[emphasis supplied]
118118. Another Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of Tej Kiran Jain and others (supra) was considering the provisions of Article 105 of the Constitution of India and, particularly, the immunity as available G to the Member of Parliament “in respect of anything said…….. in Parliament”. The Constitution Bench observed thus: “8. In our judgment it is not possible to read the provisions of the article in the way suggested. The article means what it says in language which could not be plainer. The article confers H
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A immunity inter alia in respect of “anything said ... in Parliament”. The word “anything” is of the widest import and is equivalent to “everything”. The only limitation arises from the words “in Parliament” which means during the sitting of Parliament and in the course of the business of Parliament. We are concerned only with speeches in Lok Sabha. Once it was proved that Parliament was sitting and its business was being transacted, anything said during the course of that business was immune from proceedings in any Court this immunity is not only complete but is as it should be. It is of the essence of parliamentary system of Government that people’s representatives should be free to express themselves without fear of legal consequences. What they say is only subject to the discipline of the rules of Parliament, the good sense of the members and the control of proceedings by the Speaker. The Courts have no say in the matter and should really have none.” D [emphasis supplied]
119119. This Court held that the word “anything” is of the widest import and is equivalent to “everything”. The only limitation arises from the words “in Parliament” which means during the sitting of Parliament and in the course of the business of Parliament. It held that, once it was E proved that Parliament was sitting and its business was being transacted, anything said during the course of that business was immune from proceedings in any Court.
120120. This Court, in the case of Lucknow Development Authority (supra),was considering clause (o) of Section (2) of the Consumer F Protection Act, 1986 which defines “service”, wherein the word “any” again fell for consideration. This Court observed thus: “4. …… The words ‘any’ and ‘potential’ are significant. Both are of wide amplitude. The word ‘any’ dictionarily means ‘one or some or all’. In Black’s Law Dictionary it is explained G thus, “word ‘any’ has a diversity of meaning and may be employed to indicate ‘all’ or ‘every’ as well as ‘some’ or ‘one’ and its meaning in a given statute depends upon the context and the subject-matter of the statute”. The use of the word ‘any’ in the context it has been used in clause (o) indicates that it has been used in wider sense extending from one to all……” H
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121121. This Court held that the word “any” is of wide amplitude. It A means “one or some or all”. Referring to Black’s Law Dictionary, the Court observed that the word “any” has a diversity of meaning and may be employed to indicate “all” or “every” as well as “some” or “one”. However, the meaning which is to be given to it would depend upon the context and the subject-matter of the statute. B
122122. In the case of K.P. Mohammed Salim (supra), this Court was considering the power of the Director General or Chief Commissioner or Commissioner to transfer any case from one or more assessing officers subordinate to him to any other assessing officer or assessing officers. This Court observed thus: C “17. The word “any” must be read in the context of the statute and for the said purpose, it may in a situation of this nature, means all. The principles of purposive construction for the said purpose may be resorted to. (See New India Assurance Co. Ltd. v. Nusli Neville Wadia [(2008) 3 SCC 279 : (2007) 13 SCR 598]) Thus, in the context of a statute, the word “any” may be read as all D in the context of the Income Tax Act for which the power of transfer has been conferred upon the authorities specified under Section 127.” [emphasis supplied] E
123123. The Court again reiterated that the word “any” must be read in the context of the statute. The Court also applied the principles of purposive construction to the term “any” to mean “all”.
124124. In the case of Raj Kumar Shivhare (supra), an argument was sought to be advanced that since Section 35 of the Foreign Exchange F Management Act, 1999 uses the words “any decision or order”, only appeals from final order could be filed. Rejecting the said contention, this Court observed thus: “19. The word “any” in this context would mean “all”. We are of this opinion in view of the fact that this section confers a right of G appeal on any person aggrieved. A right of appeal, it is well settled, is a creature of statute. It is never an inherent right, like that of filing a suit. A right of filing a suit, unless it is barred by statute, as it is barred here under Section 34 of FEMA, is an inherent right (see Section 9 of the Civil Procedure Code) but a right of appeal is always conferred by a statute. While conferring such right a H
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A statute may impose restrictions, like limitation or pre-deposit of penalty or it may limit the area of appeal to questions of law or sometime to substantial questions of law. Whenever such limitations are imposed, they are to be strictly followed. But in a case where there is no limitation on the nature of order or decision to be appealed against, as in this case, the right of appeal cannot be further curtailed by this Court on the basis of an interpretative exercise.
20. Under Section 35 of FEMA, the legislature has conferred a right of appeal to a person aggrieved from “any” “order” or “decision” of the Appellate Tribunal. Of course such appeal will have to be on a question of law. In this context the word “any” would mean “all”. xxx xxx xxx
26. In the instant case also when a right is conferred on a D person aggrieved to file appeal from “any” order or decision of the Tribunal, there is no reason, in the absence of a contrary statutory intent, to give it a restricted meaning. Therefore, in our judgment in Section 35 of FEMA, any “order” or “decision” of the Appellate Tribunal would mean all decisions or orders of the Appellate Tribunal and all such decisions or E orders are, subject to limitation, appealable to the High Court on a question of law.” [emphasis supplied]
125125. While holding that the word “any” in the context would mean F “all”, this Court observed that a right of appeal is always conferred by a statute. It has been held that, while conferring such right, a statute may impose restrictions, like limitation or pre-deposit of penalty or it may limit the area of appeal to questions of law or sometime to substantial questions of law. It has been held that whenever such limitations are imposed, they are to be strictly followed. It has been held that in a case where there is no limitation, the right of appeal cannot be curtailed by this Court on the basis of an interpretative exercise.
126126. Shri P. Chidambaram, learned Senior Counsel relied on the judgment of this Court in the case of Union of India v. A.B. Shah and others (supra). In the said case, the High Court was considering an appeal preferred by the Union of India wherein it had challenged the
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acquittal of the accused by the learned trial court, which was confirmed in appeal by the High Court. The learned trial court and the High Court had held that the complaint filed was beyond limitation. This Court reversed the judgments of the learned trial court and the High Court. This Court while interpreting the expression “at any time” observed thus: “12. If we look into Conditions 3 and 6 with the object and purpose of the Act in mind, it has to be held that these conditions are not only relatable to what was required at the commencement of depillaring process, but the unstowing for the required length must exist always. The expression “at any time” finding place in Condition 6 has to mean, in the context in which it has been used, “at any point of time”, the effect of which is that the required length must be maintained all the time. The accomplishment of object of the Act, one of which is safety in the mines, requires taking of such a view, especially in the backdrop of repeated mine disasters which have been taking, off and on, heavy toll of lives of the miners. It may be pointed out that the word ‘any’ has a diversity of meaning and in Black’s Law Dictionary it has been stated that this word may be employed to indicate ‘all’ or ‘every’, and its meaning will depend “upon the context and subject-matter of the statute”. A reference to what has been stated in Stroud’s Judicial Dictionary Vol. I, is revealing inasmuch as the import of the word E ‘any’ has been explained from pp. 145 to 153 of the 4th Edn., a perusal of which shows it has different connotations depending primarily on the subject-matter of the statute and the context of its use. A Bench of this Court in Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [(1994) 1 SCC 243] , gave a very wide meaning to this word finding place in Section 2(o) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defining ‘service’. (See para 4)” [emphasis supplied]
127127. Shri Chidambaram rightly argued that the word “any” will have to be construed in its context, taking into consideration the scheme and the purpose of the enactment. There can be no quarrel with regard to the said proposition. Right from the judgment of the Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of The Chief Inspector of Mines and another v. Lala Karam Chand Thapar etc. (supra), the position is clear. What is the meaning which the legislature intended to give to a particular H
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A statutory provision has to be decided by the Court on a consideration of the context in which the word(s) appear(s) and in particular, the scheme and object of the legislation. Purposive interpretation
128128. We find that for deciding the present issue, it will also be necessary to refer an important principle of interpretation of statutes i.e. of purposive interpretation.
129129. “Legislation has an aim, it seeks to obviate some mischief, to supply an inadequacy, to effect a change of policy, to formulate a plan of government. That aim, that policy is not drawn, like nitrogen, out of the air; it is evidenced in the language of the statute, as read in the light of other external manifestations of purpose [Some Reflections on the Reading of Statutes, 47 Columbia LR 527, at p. 538 (1947)].”
130130. This is how Justice Frankfurter succinctly propounds the principle of purposive interpretation. It is thus necessary to cull out the legislative policy from various factors like the words in the statute, the preamble of the Act, the statement of objects and reasons, and in a given case, even the attendant circumstances. After the legislative policy is found, then the words used in the statute must be so interpreted such that it advances the purpose of the statute and does not defeat it.
131131. Francis Bennion in his treatise Statutory Interpretation, at page 810 described purposive construction in an equally eloquent manner as under: “A purposive construction of an enactment is one which gives effect to the legislative purpose by— F (a) following the literal meaning of the enactment where that meaning is in accordance with the legislative purpose (in this Code called a purposive-and-literal construction), or (b) applying a strained meaning where the literal meaning is not in accordance with the legislative purpose (in the Code G called a purposive-and-strained construction).”
132132. A statute must be construed having regard to the legislative intent. It has to be meaningful. A construction which leads to manifest absurdity must not be preferred to a construction which would fulfil the object and purport of the legislative intent. H
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133133. Aharon Barak, the former President of the Supreme Court A of Israel, whose exposition of “doctrine of proportionality” has found approval by the Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of Modern Dental College and Research Centre and Others (supra), to which we will refer to in the forthcoming paragraphs, in his commentary on “Purposive Interpretation in Law”, has summarized ‘the goal of interpretation in law’ as under: “At some point, we need to find an Archimedean foothold, external to the text, from which to answer that question. My answer is this: The goal of interpretation in law is to achieve the objective – in other words, the purpose – of law.56 The role of a system of interpretation in law is to choose, from among the semantic options for a given text, the meaning that best achieves the purpose of the text. Each legal text – will, contract, statute, and constitution – was chosen to achieve a social objective. Achieving this objective, achieving this purpose, is the goal of interpretation. The system of interpretation is the device and the means. It is a tool through which law achieves self-realization. In interpreting a given text, which is, after all, what interpretation in law does, a system of interpretation must guarantee that the purpose of the norm trapped in the – in our terminology, the purpose of the text – will be achieved in the best way. Hence the requirement that the system of interpretation be a rational activity. A coin toss will not do. This E is also the rationale – which is at the core of my own views – for the belief that purposive interpretation is the most proper system of interpretation. This system is proper because it guarantees the achievement of the purpose of law. There is social, jurisprudential, hermeneutical, and constitutional support for my claim that the proper criterion for interpretation is the search for law’s purpose, and that purposive interpretation best fulfills that criterion. A comparative look at the law supports it, as well. I will discuss each element of that support below.”
134134. The learned Judge emphasized that purposive interpretation is the most proper system of interpretation. He observed that this system is proper because it guarantees the achievement of the purpose of law. The proper criterion for interpretation is the search for law’s purpose, and that purposive interpretation best fulfills that criterion. 56 D. Brink, “Legal Theory, Legal Interpretation, and Judicial Review,” 17 Phil. And Pub. Aff. 105, 125 (1988). H
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135135. The principle of purposive interpretation has also been expounded through a catena of judgments of this Court. A Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of M. Pentiah and others v. Muddala Veeramallappa and others57 was considering a question, as to whether the term prescribed in Section 34 would apply to a member of a “deemed” committee under the provisions of the Hyderabad District Municipalities B Act, 1956. An argument was put forth that, upon a correct interpretation of the provisions of Section 16, the same would be permissible. Rejecting the said argument, K. Subba Rao, J, observed thus: “Before we consider this argument in some detail, it will be convenient at this stage to notice some of the well established rules of Construction which would help us to steer clear of the complications created by the Act. Maxwell on the Interpretation of Statutes, 10th Edn., says at p. 7 thus: “… if the choice is between two interpretations, the narrower of which would fail to achieve the manifest purpose of the legislation, we should avoid a construction which would reduce the legislation to futility and should rather accept the bolder construction based on the view that Parliament would legislate only for the purpose of bringing about an effective result”. It is said in Craies on Statute Law, 5th Edn., at p. 82— E “Manifest absurdity or futility, palpable injustice, or absurd inconvenience or anomaly to be avoided.” Lord Davey in Canada Sugar Refining Co. v. R. [(1898) AC 735] provides another useful guide of correct perspective to such F a problem in the following words: “Every clause of a statute should be construed with reference to the context and the other clauses of the Act, so as, so far as possible, to make a consistent enactment of the whole statute or series of statutes relating to the subject-matter.””
136136. A.K. Sarkar, J. in his concurring opinion observed thus: “There is no doubt that the Act raises some difficulty. It was certainly not intended that the members elected to the Committee under the repealed Act should be given a permanent tenure of office nor that there would be no elections under the new Act. 57 H (1961) 2 SCR 295
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Yet such a result would appear to follow if the language used in the new Act is strictly and literally interpreted. It is however well established that “Where the language of a statute, in its ordinary meaning and grammatical construction, leads to a manifest contradiction of the apparent purpose of the enactment, or to some inconvenience or absurdity, hardship or in justice, presumably not intended, a construction may be put upon it which modifies the meaning of the words, and even the structure of the sentence.…Where the main object and intention of a statute are clear, it must not be reduced to a nullity by the draftsman’s unskilfulness or ignorance of the law, except in a case of necessity, or the absolute intractability of the language used. Nevertheless, the courts are very reluctant to substitute words in a Statute, or to add words to it, and it has been said that they will only do so where there is a repugnancy to good Sense.”: see Maxwell on Statutes (10th Edn.) p. 229. In Seaford Court Estates Ltd. v. Asher [(1949) 2 AER 155, 164] D , Denning, L.J. said: “when a defect appears a judge cannot simply fold his hands and blame the draftsman. He must set to work on the constructive task of finding the intention of Parliament … and then he must supplement the written word so as to give “force and life” to the intention of the legislature …. A E judge should ask himself the question how, if the makers of the Act had themselves come across this ruck in the texture of it, they would have straightened it out? He must then do as they would have done. A judge must not alter the material of which the Act is woven, but he can and should iron out F the creases.”” [emphasis supplied]
137137. Another Constitution Bench Judgment of this Court in the case of Chief Justice of Andhra Pradesh and others v. L.V.A. Dixitulu and others58 reiterated the position in the following words: G “67. Where two alternative constructions are possible, the court must choose the one which will be in accord with the other parts of the statute and ensure its smooth, harmonious working, and 58 (1979) 2 SCC 34 H
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A eschew the other which leads to absurdity, confusion, or friction, contradiction and conflict between its various provisions, or undermines, or tends to defeat or destroy the basic scheme and purpose of the enactment. …….”
138138. In the case of M/s Girdhari Lal and Sons v. Balbir Nath B Mathur and others59, O. Chinnappa Reddy, J. explained the position as under: “9. So we see that the primary and foremost task of a court in interpreting a statute is to ascertain the intention of the legislature, actual or imputed. Having ascertained the intention, the court must then strive to so interpret the statute as to promote or advance the object and purpose of the enactment. For this purpose, where necessary the court may even depart from the rule that plain words should be interpreted according to their plain meaning. There need be no meek and mute submission to the plainness of the language. To avoid patent injustice, anomaly or absurdity or to avoid invalidation of a law, the court would be well justified in departing from the so-called golden rule of construction so as to give effect to the object and purpose of the enactment by supplementing the written word if necessary.”
139139. After referring to various earlier judgments of other jurisdictions, His Lordship observed thus: “16. Our own court has generally taken the view that ascertainment of legislative intent is a basic rule of statutory construction and that a rule of construction should be preferred which advances the purpose and object of a legislation and that though a construction, according to plain language, should ordinarily be adopted, such a construction should not be adopted where it leads to anomalies, injustices or absurdities, vide K.P. Varghese v. ITO [(1981) 4 SCC 173 : 1981 SCC (Tax) 293] , State Bank of Travancore v. Mohd. M. G Khan [(1981) 4 SCC 82] , Som Prakash Rekhi v. Union of India [(1981) 1 SCC 449 : 1981 SCC (L&S) 200] , Ravula Subba Rao v. CIT [AIR 1956 SC 604 : 1956 SCR 577], Govindlal v. Agricultural Produce Market Committee [(1975) 2 SCC 482 : AIR 1976 SC 59 (1986) 2 SCC 237 H
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263 : (1976) 1 SCR 451] and Babaji Kondaji v. Nasik Merchants A Coop. Bank Ltd. [(1984) 2 SCC 50]” [emphasis supplied]
140140. M.N. Venkatachaliah, J. speaking for the Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of Tinsukhia Electric Supply Co. Ltd. v. State of Assam and others60 observed thus: B
“118. The courts strongly lean against any construction which tends to reduce a statute to futility. The provision of a statute must be so construed as to make it effective and operative, on the principle “ut res magis valeat quam pereat”. It is, no doubt, true that if a statute is absolutely vague and its language wholly intractable and absolutely meaningless, the statute could be declared void for vagueness. This is not in judicial review by testing the law for arbitrariness or unreasonableness under Article 14; but what a court of construction, dealing with the language of a statute, does in order to ascertain from, and accord to, the statute the meaning and purpose which the legislature intended for it. In Manchester Ship Canal Co. v. Manchester Racecourse Co. [(1904) 2 Ch 352 : 16 TLR 429 : 83 LT 274] Farwell J. said: (pp. 360-61) “Unless the words were so absolutely senseless that I E could do nothing at all with them, I should be bound to find some meaning and not to declare them void for uncertainty.”
119. In Fawcett Properties Ltd. v. Buckingham County Council [(1960) 3 All ER 503] Lord Denning approving the dictum of Farwell, J., said:(All ER p. 516) F “But when a Statute has some meaning, even though it is obscure, or several meanings, even though there is little to choose between them, the courts have to say what meaning the statute to bear rather than reject it as a nullity.”
120. It is, therefore, the court’s duty to make what it can of the G statute, knowing that the statutes are meant to be operative and not inept and the nothing short of impossibility should allow a court to declare a statute unworkable. In Whitney v. IRC [1926 AC 37] Lord Dunedin said: (AC p. 52) 60 (1989) 3 SCC 709 H
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A “A statute is designed to be workable, and the interpretation thereof by a court should be to secure that object, unless crucial omission or clear direction makes that end unattainable.””
141141. In the case of State of Gujarat and another v. Justice B R.A. Mehta (Retired) and others61, this Court held as under: “98. The doctrine of purposive construction may be taken recourse to for the purpose of giving full effect to statutory provisions, and the courts must state what meaning the statute should bear, rather than rendering the statute a nullity, as statutes are meant to be operative and not inept. The courts must refrain from declaring a statute to be unworkable. The rules of interpretation require that construction which carries forward the objectives of the statute, protects interest of the parties and keeps the remedy alive, should be preferred looking into the text and context of the statute. Construction given by the court must promote the object of the statute and serve the purpose for which it has been enacted and not efface its very purpose. “The courts strongly lean against any construction which tends to reduce a statute to futility. The provision of the statute must be so construed as to make it effective and operative.” The court must take a E pragmatic view and must keep in mind the purpose for which the statute was enacted as the purpose of law itself provides good guidance to courts as they interpret the true meaning of the Act and thus legislative futility must be ruled out. A statute must be construed in such a manner so as to ensure that the Act itself does not become a dead letter and the obvious intention of the legislature does not stand defeated unless it leads to a case of absolute intractability in use. The court must adopt a construction which suppresses the mischief and advances the remedy and “to suppress subtle inventions and evasions for continuance of the mischief, and pro privato commodo, and to add force and life to the cure and remedy, according to the true intent of the makers of the Act, pro bono publico”. The court must give effect to the purpose and object of the Act for the reason that legislature is presumed to have enacted a reasonable statute. (Vide M. Pentiah v. Muddala Veeramallappa [AIR 1961 SC 1107] , S.P. 61 H (2013) 13 SCC 1
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Jain v. Krishna Mohan Gupta [(1987) 1 SCC 191 : AIR 1987 A SC 222] , RBI v. Peerless General Finance and Investment Co. Ltd. [(1987) 1 SCC 424 : AIR 1987 SC 1023] , Tinsukhia Electric Supply Co. Ltd. v. State of Assam [(1989) 3 SCC 709 : AIR 1990 SC 123] , SCC p. 754, para 118, UCO Bank v. Rajinder Lal Capoor [(2008) 5 SCC 257 : (2008) 2 SCC (L&S) 263] and Grid B Corpn. of Orissa Ltd. v. Eastern Metals and Ferro Alloys [(2011) 11 SCC 334].)” [emphasis supplied]
142142. The principle of purposive construction has been enunciated in various subsequent judgments of this Court. However, we would not like to burden this judgment with a plethora of citations. Suffice it to say, the law on the issue is very well crystalized.
143143. It is thus clear that it is a settled principle that the modern approach of interpretation is a pragmatic one, and not pedantic. An interpretation which advances the purpose of the Act and which ensures its smooth and harmonious working must be chosen and the other which leads to absurdity, or confusion, or friction, or contradiction and conflict between its various provisions, or undermines, or tends to defeat or destroy the basic scheme and purpose of the enactment must be eschewed. The primary and foremost task of the Court in interpreting a statute is to gather the intention of the legislature, actual or imputed. Having E ascertained the intention, it is the duty of the Court to strive to so interpret the statute as to promote or advance the object and purpose of the enactment. For this purpose, where necessary, the Court may even depart from the rule that plain words should be interpreted according to their plain meaning. There need be no meek and mute submission to the F plainness of the language. To avoid patent injustice, anomaly or absurdity or to avoid invalidation of a law, the court would be justified in departing from the so-called golden rule of construction so as to give effect to the object and purpose of the enactment. Ascertainment of legislative intent is the basic rule of statutory construction. G Construction of sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act.
144144. Applying the aforesaid pronouncements on the construction of the term “any” and the principle of purposive construction, we will now consider the scope of the term “any” used in sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act. H
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145145. Sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act empowers the Central Government to issue a notification in the Gazette of India thereby declaring that, with effect from such date as may be specified in the notification, any series of bank notes of any denomination shall cease to be legal tender. It further provides that such an action has to be taken by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Central Board. B
146146. As already discussed herein above, the RBI Act is a special Act, vesting all the powers and functions with regard to monetary policy and all matters pertaining to management and regulation of currency with the RBI. The Central Government is required to take its decision on the basis of the recommendation of the Central Board. C
147147. It could thus be seen that power is vested with the Central Government and that power has to be exercised on the recommendation of the RBI. Both sides agree that RBI plays a unique role in the matter of monetary policy and issuance of currency. The Central Government is empowered under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act to notify any series of bank notes of any denomination to cease to be a legal tender. The effect of such a notification would be that the liabilities as provided under Section 34 of the RBI Act and the guarantee as provided under sub-section (1) of Section 26 of the RBI Act shall cease to have effect on such notification being issued thereby demonetizing the bank notes.
148148. As already discussed herein above, the RBI Act has been enacted to regulate the issue of bank notes and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country. Section 3 of the RBI Act provides that the RBI has been constituted for the purposes of taking over the management of the currency from the Central Government and carrying on the business of banking in accordance with the provisions of the RBI Act. Sub-section (1) of Section 22 of the RBI Act provides that the RBI shall have the sole right to issue bank notes in India. However, for a period which is to be fixed by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Central Board, it can issue currency notes of the G Government of India supplied to it by the Central Government. Further, sub-section (2) of Section 22 of the RBI Act specifically prohibits the Central Government from issuing any currency notes on and from the date on which Chapter III of the RBI Act comes into effect.
149149. It can thus clearly be seen that a primary and very important H role is assigned to the RBI in the matter of issuance of bank notes. As
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held by this Court in the case Peerless General Finance and Investment A Co. Limited and another (supra), the RBI has a large contingent of expert advice available to it. The Central Government would exercise its power on the recommendation of the Central Board. When the legislature itself has provided that the Central Government would take a decision after considering the recommendation of the Central Board of the RBI, which has been assigned a primary role in matters with regard to monetary policy and management and regulation of currency, we are of the view that the legislature could not have intended to give a restricted power under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act. In any case, if the argument that the provisions of sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act have to be interpreted in a restricted manner, is to be accepted, it may, at times, lead to an anomalous situation.
150150. For example, if there are 20 series of a particular denomination, and if the argument of the petitioners is to be accepted, the Central Government would be empowered to demonetize 19 series of a particular denomination, leaving one series of the said denomination to continue to be a legal tender, which would lead to a chaotic situation.
151151. As discussed hereinabove, the policy underlining the provisions of Section 26 of the RBI Act is to enable the Central Government on the recommendation of the Central Board, to effect demonetization. The same can be done in respect of any series of bank notes of any denomination. The legislative policy is with regard to management and regulation of currency. Demonetization of notes would certainly be a part of management and regulation of currency. The legislature has empowered the Central Government to exercise such a power. The Central Government may take recourse to such a power when it finds necessary to do so taking into consideration myriad factors. No doubt that such factors must have reasonable nexus with the object sought to be achieved. If the Central Government finds that fake notes of a particular denomination are widely in circulation or that they are being used to promote terrorism, can it be said, for instance, that out of 20 series of bank notes of a particular denomination, it can demonetize only G 19 series of bank notes but not all 20 series? In our view, this will result in nothing else but absurdity and the very purpose for which the power is vested shall stand frustrated. An interpretation which, in effect, nullifies the purpose for which a power is to be exercised, in our view, would be opposed to the principle of purposive interpretation. Such an interpretation, H
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A in our view, rather than advancing the object of the enactment, would defeat the same.
152152. Another line of argument that is sought to be advanced with regard to the submission that the power under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act has to be construed to restricting it to “one” or “some” B series of bank notes, is that the Parliament also meant the same inasmuch as on earlier two occasions i.e. in 1946 and 1978 the demonetization exercise in respect of “all” series was done by resorting to plenary legislations. Shri Chidambaram has taken us through various volumes of the history of the RBI. Perusal of Volume I thereof would reveal that, in 1946, it is not known when the Government Authorities started thinking on the demonetization measure, but the final consultation could take place with the Governor and Deputy Governor. It appears that the RBI authorities were not enthusiastic about the scheme. It appears that in spite of the opposition by the then Governor of the RBI, Shri C.D. Deshmukh, the Government went ahead with the scheme and issued an ordinance on 12th January 1946.
153153. Further, perusal of Volume III would reveal that the then Governor I.G. Patel was not in favour of the demonetization scheme of
1978. However, in spite of the opposition of the Governor of the RBI, the Government went ahead with the demonetization scheme and issued an ordinance in the early hours of 16th January 1978 and the news was announced on All India Radio’s news bulletin at 9 am on the same day.
154154. It could thus be seen that on earlier two occasions, since the RBI was not in favour of the demonetization, the Government resorted to promulgating ordinances for the said purpose.
155155. It is to be noted that after the ordinance of 1946 was promulgated, the RBI Act was amended vide Act No.62 of 1956 and Section 26A was added, thereby specifically providing that no bank note of the denominational value of Rs.500/-, Rs. 1,000/- and Rs.10,000/- issued before the 13th day of January 1946 shall be legal tender in payment G or on account for the amount expressed therein.
156156. After the ordinance was issued on 16th January 1978, the same transformed into an Act of Parliament upon the President of India giving his assent to the Act on 30th March 1978.
157157. Merely because on earlier two occasions the Government H decided to take recourse to plenary power of legislation, this, by itself,
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cannot be a ground to give a restricted meaning to the word “any” in sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act. As already discussed herein above, in our considered view, the legislative intent could not have been to give a restricted meaning to the word “any” in sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act.
158158. We are, therefore, unable to accept the contention that the word “any” has to be given a restricted meaning taking into consideration the overall scheme, purpose and the object of the RBI Act and also the context in which the power is to be exercised. We find that the word “any” would mean “all” under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act. C ISSUE NO. (ii): IN THE EVENT IT IS HELD THAT THE POWER UNDER SUB-SECTION (2) OF SECTION 26 OF THE RBI ACT IS CONSTRUED TO MEAN THAT IT CAN BE EXERCISED IN RESPECT OF “ALL” SERIES OF BANK NOTES, WHETHER THE POWER VESTED WITH THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT UNDER THE SAID SUB-SECTION D WOULD AMOUNT TO CONFERRING EXCESSIVE DELEGATION AND AS SUCH, LIABLE TO BE STRUCK DOWN?
159159. The second limb of argument on behalf of the petitioners is that, if the word “any” used in sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI E Act is not given a restricted meaning, then sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act will have to be held invalid on the ground that it confers excessive delegation upon the Central Government.
160160. It is submitted that sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act vests uncanalised, unguided and arbitrary powers in the Central F Government and as such, on this ground alone, the said provision is liable to be struck down.
161161. Shri P. Chidambaram, learned Senior Counsel has relied on the Constitution Bench judgment of this Court in the case of Hamdard Dawakhana (Wakf) Lal Kuan, Delhi and another (supra) to buttress G his submissions. Precedents considering delegated legislation
162162. In the case of Hamdard Dawakhana (Wakf) Lal Kuan, Delhi and another (supra), the Constitution Bench of this Court while H
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A considering the validity of clause (d) of Section 3 of the Drug and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisement) Act, (21 of 1954) observed thus: “33. The interdiction under the Act is applicable to conditions and diseases set out in the various clauses of Section 3 and to those B that may under the last part of clause (d) be specified in the Rules made under Section 16. The first sub-section of Section 16 authorises the making of rules to carry out the purposes of the Act and clause (a) of sub-section (2) of that section specifically authorises the specification of diseases or conditions to which the provisions of Section 3 shall apply. It is the first sub-section of C Section 16 which confers the general rule-making power i.e. it delegates to the administrative authority the power to frame rules and regulations to subserve the object and purpose of the Act. Clause (a) of the second sub-section is merely illustrative of the power given under the first sub-section; King- D Emperor v. Sibnath Banerji [(1945) LR 72 IA 241] . Therefore, sub-section 2(a) also has the same object as sub-section (1) i.e. to carry out the purposes of the Act. Consequently, when the rule-making authority specifies conditions and diseases in the Schedule it exercises the same delegated authority as it does when it exercises powers under sub-section (1) and makes other rules and therefore it is delegated legislation. The question for decision then is, is the delegation constitutional in that the administrative authority has been supplied with proper guidance. In our view the words impugned are vague. Parliament has established no criteria, no standards and has not prescribed any principle on which a particular disease or condition is to be specified in the Schedule. It is not stated what facts or circumstances are to be taken into consideration to include a particular condition or disease. The power of specifying diseases and conditions as given in Section 3(d) must therefore be held to be going beyond permissible boundaries of valid delegation. As a consequence the G Schedule in the rules must be struck down. But that would not affect such conditions and diseases which properly fall within the four clauses of Section 3 excluding the portion of clause (d) which has been declared to be unconstitutional. In the view we have taken it is unnecessary to consider the applicability of Baxter v. Ah H Way [(1957) SCR 604].”
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163163. In the said case, this Court found that sub-section (1) of A Section 16 conferred a power on the Central Government to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Act. The Court further found that, it is the first sub-section of Section 16 which confers the general rule- making power i.e. it delegates to the administrative authority the power to frame rules and regulations to subserve the object and purpose of the B Act. The Court found that the question, therefore, was, as to whether the delegation to the administrative authority without supplying proper guidance was constitutional or not. The Court held that the words impugned were vague and Parliament had established no criteria, no standards and had not prescribed any principle on which a particular disease or condition was to be specified in the Schedule. The Court, C therefore, held clause (d) of Section 3 to be amounting to excessive delegation and as such unconstitutional.
164164. In the case of Harakchand Ratanchand Banthia and others (supra), the Constitution Bench of this Court was considering the power given to the Administrator under the Gold (Control) Act, 1968. D Section 5 of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968, which confers power on the Administrator to issue directions and orders, fell for consideration, which read thus: “5. Power of Administrator issue directions and orders.— (1) The Administrator may, if he thinks fit, make orders, not inconsistent E with the provisions of this Act, for carrying out the provisions of this Act. (2) The Administrator may, so far as it appears to him to be necessary or expedient for carrying out the provisions of this Act, by order— F (a) regulate, after consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, the price at which any gold may be bought or sold, and (b) regulate by licences, permits or otherwise, the manufacture, distribution, transport, acquisition, possession, transfer, disposal, use or consumption of gold.” G [emphasis supplied]
165165. It can be seen that under clause (b) sub-section (2) of Section 5 of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968, the Administrator was conferred with the power to regulate by licences, permits or otherwise, the manufacture, H
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A distribution, transport, acquisition, possession, transfer, disposal, use or consumption of gold. In this premise, this Court observed thus: “20. It is manifest upon a review of all these provisions that the power conferred upon the Administrator under Section 5(2)(b) is legislative in character and extremely wide. A parallel power of subordinate legislation is conferred to the Central Government under Section 114(1) and (2) of the Act. But Section 114(3) however makes it incumbent upon the Central Government to place the Rules before each House of Parliament while it is in session for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two successive sessions. It is clear that the substantive provisions of the Act namely Sections 8, 11, 21, 31(3), 34(3) confer powers on the Administrator similar to those contemplated by Section 5(2)(b) of the Act. In these circumstances we are of opinion that the power of regulation granted to the Administrator under Section D 5(2)(b) of the Act suffers from excessive delegation of legislative power and must be held to be constitutionally invalid.” [emphasis supplied]
166166. This Court in the case of Harakchand Ratanchand Banthia E and others (supra), therefore, was considering the delegation of power to the Administrator under clause (b) of sub-section (2) of Section 5 of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968. The Court found that a parallel power of subordinate legislation was conferred to the Central Government under Section 114(1) and (2) of the said Act. However, under sub-section (3) F of Section 114 of the said Act it is incumbent upon the Central Government to place the Rules before each House of Parliament. This Court further held that the substantive provisions of the Act namely Sections 8, 11, 21, 31(3) and 34(3) of the said Act also confer powers on the Administrator which was similar to the one contemplated by Section 5(2)(b) of the said Act. In these circumstances, the Court held that the power of regulation granted to the Administrator under Section 5(2)(b) of the said Act suffers from excessive delegation and as such unconstitutional.
167167. It could thus be seen that clause (b) of sub-section (2) of Section 5 of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968 conferred a power on the Administrator which was legislative in nature, to regulate the transactions with regard to use and consumption of gold.
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168168. It is to be noted that clause (a) of sub-section (2) of Section A 5 of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968 also empowered the Administrator to regulate, after consultation with the RBI, the price at which any gold may be bought or sold. It was also argued before the Court that the said provision is also invalid amounting to excessive delegation inasmuch as the power conferred was unguided. This Court specifically rejected the said contention. It will be apposite to refer to the following observations of this Court: “..…As the power to fix the price may also be exercised not only in respect of primary gold but also in respect of articles and ornaments the business of the petitioners and similarly other persons will be adversely affected. But the section provides the safeguard that the regulation of the price should be made by the Administrator after consultation with the Reserve Bank of India. It was argued that the phrase “so far as it appears to him to be necessary or expedient for carrying out the provisions of this Act” was a subjective formula and action of the D Administrator in making the orders under Section 5 (2)(a) may be arbitrary and unreasonable. But in our opinion the formula is not subjective and does not constitute the Administrator the sole judge as to what is in fact necessary or expedient for the purposes of the Act. On the contrary we hold that in the context of the scheme and object of the legislation as a whole the expression cannot be construed in a subjective sense and the opinion of the Administrator as to the necessity or expediency of making the order must be reached objectively after having regard to the relevant considerations and must be reasonably tenable in a court of law. It must be assumed that the Administrator will generally address himself to the circumstances of the situation before him and not try to promote purposes alien to the object of the Act….” [emphasis supplied]
169169. It is thus clear that though the Court found the power under Section 5(2)(b) of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968 suffered from excessive delegation and, therefore, constitutionally invalid; it, however, categorically rejected the contention insofar as Section 5(2)(a) of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968 is concerned, inasmuch as it provided a safeguard that the regulation of the price should be made by the Administrator after consultation with the RBI. H
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170170. This Court rejected the argument that the phrase “so far as it appears to him to be necessary or expedient for carrying out the provisions of this Act” was a subjective formula and as such, the action of the Administrator under Section 5(2)(a) was arbitrary and unreasonable. Rejecting the said contention, the Court held that in the context of the scheme and object of the legislation as a whole, the expression cannot be construed in a subjective sense and the opinion of the Administrator as to the necessity or expediency of making the order must be reached objectively after having regard to the relevant considerations and must be reasonably tenable in a court of law.
171171. It could thus be seen that though the Court found the power under Section 5(2)(b) of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968 to be invalid on the ground of excessive delegation, yet it found the power under Section 5(2)(a) of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968 to be valid since it provides an inbuilt safeguard that the Administrator has to act after consultation with the RBI.
172172. A Seven-Judge Bench of this Court in the case of Birla Cotton, Spinning and Weaving Mills Delhi (supra) was considering the validity of Section 150 of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957, which reads thus: “150. Imposition of other taxes. E (1) The Corporation may, at a meeting, pass a resolution for the levy of any of the taxes specified in sub-section (2) of Section 113, defining the maximum rate of the tax to be levied, the class or classes of persons or the description or descriptions of articles and properties to be taxed, the system of assessment to be adopted F and the exemptions, if any, to be granted. (2) Any resolution passed under sub-section (1) shall be submitted to the Central Government for its sanction, and if sanctioned by that Government, shall come into force on and from such date as may be specified in the order of sanction. G (3) After a resolution has come into force under sub-section (2), the Corporation may, subject to the maximum rate, pass a second resolution determining the actual rates at which the tax shall be leviable; and the tax shall come into force on the first day of the quarter of the year next following the date on which such second H resolution is passed.
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(4) After a tax has been levied in accordance with the foregoing provisions of this section, the provisions of sub-section (2) of Section 109, shall apply in relation to such tax as they apply in relation to any tax imposed under sub-section (1) of Section 113.”
173173. It was sought to be argued that Section 150(1) delegates completely unguided power to the Corporation in the matter of optional taxes and suffers from the vice of excessive delegation and, therefore, is unconstitutional.
174174. This Court after considering various earlier cases including Hamdard Dawakhana (Wakf) Lal Kuan, Delhi and another (supra) observed thus: C “A review of these authorities therefore leads to the conclusion that so far as this Court is concerned the principle is well established that essential legislative function consists of the determination of the legislative policy and its formulation as a binding rule of conduct and cannot be delegated by the legislature. D Nor is there any unlimited right of delegation inherent in the legislative power itself. This is not warranted by the provisions of the Constitution. The legislature must retain in its own hands the essential legislative functions and what can be delegated is the task of subordinate legislation necessary for implementing the purposes and objects of the Act. Where the legislative policy is enunciated with sufficient clearness or a standard is laid down, the courts should not interfere. What guidance should be given and to what extent and whether guidance has been given in a particular case at all depends on a consideration of the provisions of the particular Act with which the Court has to deal including its preamble. Further it appears to us that the nature of the body to which delegation is made is also a factor to be taken into consideration in determining whether there is sufficient guidance in the matter of delegation. What form the guidance should take is again a matter which cannot be stated in general terms. It will depend upon the circumstances of each statute under consideration; in some cases guidance in broad general terms may be enough; in other cases more detailed guidance may be necessary.” [emphasis supplied] H
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175175. K.N. Wanchoo, CJ, speaking for himself and J.M. Shelat, J. held that where the legislative policy is enunciated with sufficient clarity or a standard is laid down, the courts should not interfere. What guidance should be given and to what extent and whether guidance has been given in a particular case at all depends on a consideration of the provisions of the particular Act with which the Court has to deal, including its preamble. They further held that the nature of the body to which delegation is made is also a factor to be taken into consideration in determining whether there is sufficient guidance in the matter of delegation. The Court further held that what form the guidance should take is again a matter which cannot be stated in general terms. It will depend upon the circumstances of each statute under consideration. It further held that in some cases guidance in broad general terms may be enough, in other cases more detailed guidance may be necessary.
176176. The Court further observed thus: “The first circumstance which must be taken into account in this connection is that the delegation has been made to an elected body responsible to the people including those who pay taxes. The councillors have to go for election every four years. This means that if they have behaved unreasonably and the inhabitants of the area so consider it they can be thrown out at the ensuing elections. This is in our opinion a great check on the elected councillors acting unreasonably and fixing unreasonable rates of taxation. This is a democratic method of bringing to book the elected representatives who act unreasonably in such matters….”
F [emphasis supplied]
177177. It was thus found that the delegation was made to an elected body responsible to the people including those who pay taxes. It has been observed that if the councillors behave unreasonably and the inhabitants of the area so consider it, they can be thrown out at the G ensuing elections. As such, there is a great check on the elected councillors acting unreasonably and fixing unreasonable rates of taxation. This is a democratic method of bringing to book the elected representatives who act unreasonably in such matters.
178178. The Court further found that another guide or control on the limit of taxation is to be found in the purposes of the Act. After careful H
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