ARJUN PANDITRAO KHOTKAR v. KAILASH KUSHANRAO GORANTYAL AND ORS.
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GORANTYAL & ORS. [R. F. NARIMAN, J.]
comes to admissibility of evidence of information contained in electronic A records, and also that a written certificate under Section 65B(4) is a sine qua non for admissibility of such evidence, a discordant note was soon struck in Tomaso Bruno (supra).In this judgment, another three Judge Bench dealt with the admissibility of evidence in a criminal case in which CCTV footage was sought to be relied upon in evidence. The B Court held: “24. With the advancement of information technology, scientific temper in the individual and at the institutional level is to pervade the methods of investigation. With the increasing impact of technology in everyday life and as a result, the production of electronic evidence in cases has become relevant to establish the guilt of the accused or the liability of the defendant. Electronic documents stricto sensu are admitted as material evidence. With the amendment to the Evidence Act in 2000, Sections 65-A and 65-B were introduced into Chapter V relating to documentary evidence. Section 65-A provides that contents of electronic records may be admitted as evidence if the criteria provided in Section 65-B is complied with. The computer generated electronic records in evidence are admissible at a trial if proved in the manner specified by Section 65-B of the Evidence Act. Sub-section (1) of Section 65-B makes admissible as a document, paper printout of electronic records stored in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer, subject to the fulfilment of the conditions specified in sub-section (2) of Section 65-B. Secondary evidence of contents of document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act. PW 13 stated that he saw the full video recording of the fateful night in the CCTV camera, but he has not recorded the same in the case diary as nothing substantial to be adduced as evidence was present in it.
25. The production of scientific and electronic evidence in court as contemplated under Section 65-B of the Evidence Act is of great help to the investigating agency and also to the prosecution. G The relevance of electronic evidence is also evident in the light of Mohd. Ajmal Amir Kasab v. State of Maharashtra [(2012) 9 SCC 1] , wherein production of transcripts of internet transactions helped the prosecution case a great deal in proving the guilt of the accused. Similarly, in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, H
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A the links between the slain terrorists and the masterminds of the attack were established only through phone call transcripts obtained from the mobile service providers.”
3535. What is clear from this judgment is that the judgment of Anvar P.V. (supra) was not referred to at all. In fact, the judgment in State v. B Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600 was adverted to, which was a judgment specifically overruled by Anvar P.V. (supra). It may also be stated that Section 65B(4) was also not at all adverted to by this judgment. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make C CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P.V., (supra) and cannot be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.
3636. We now come to the decision in Shafhi Mohammad (supra). In this case, by an order dated 30.01.2018 made by two learned Judges D of this Court, it was stated:
“21. We have been taken through certain decisions which may be referred to. In Ram Singh v. Ram Singh [Ram Singh v. Ram Singh, 1985 Supp SCC 611], a three-Judge Bench considered the said issue. English judgments in R. v. Maqsud Ali [R. v. Maqsud E Ali, (1966) 1 QB 688] and R. v. Robson [R. v. Robson, (1972) 1 WLR 651] and American Law as noted in American Jurisprudence 2d (Vol. 29) p. 494, were cited with approval to the effect that it will be wrong to deny to the law of evidence advantages to be gained by new techniques and new devices, provided the accuracy of the recording can be proved. Such evidence should always be regarded with some caution and assessed in the light of all the circumstances of each case. Electronic evidence was held to be admissible subject to safeguards adopted by the Court about the authenticity of the same. In the case of tape-recording, it was observed that voice of the speaker must be duly identified, accuracy of the statement was required to be proved by the maker of the record, possibility of tampering was required to be ruled out. Reliability of the piece of evidence is certainly a matter to be determined in the facts and circumstances of a fact situation. However, threshold admissibility of an electronic evidence cannot be ruled out on any technicality if the same was relevant.
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22. In Tukaram S. Dighole v. Manikrao Shivaji Kokate [(2010) A 4 SCC 329], the same principle was reiterated. This Court observed that new techniques and devices are the order of the day. Though such devices are susceptible to tampering, no exhaustive rule could be laid down by which the admission of such evidence may be judged. Standard of proof of its authenticity B and accuracy has to be more stringent than other documentary evidence.
23. In Tomaso Bruno v. State of U.P. [(2015) 7 SCC 178], a three-Judge Bench observed that advancement of information technology and scientific temper must pervade the method of investigation. Electronic evidence was relevant to establish facts. C Scientific and electronic evidence can be a great help to an investigating agency. Reference was made to the decisions of this Court in Mohd. Ajmal Amir Kasab v. State of Maharashtra [(2012) 9 SCC 1] and State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu.
24. We may, however, also refer to the judgment of this Court in D Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer, delivered by a three-Judge Bench. In the said judgment in para 24 it was observed that electronic evidence by way of primary evidence was covered by Section 62 of the Evidence Act to which procedure of Section 65-B of the Evidence Act was not admissible. However, for the secondary evidence, procedure of Section 65-B of the Evidence Act was required to be followed and a contrary view taken in Navjot Sandhu that secondary evidence of electronic record could be covered under Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act, was not correct. There are, however, observations in para 14 to the effect that electronic record can be proved only as per Section 65-B of the Evidence Act.
25. Though in view of the three-Judge Bench judgments in Tomaso Bruno and Ram Singh [1985 Supp SCC 611] , it can be safely held that electronic evidence is admissible and provisions under Sections 65-A and 65-B of the Evidence Act are by way of a G clarification and are procedural provisions. If the electronic evidence is authentic and relevant the same can certainly be admitted subject to the Court being satisfied about its authenticity and procedure for its admissibility may depend on fact situation such as whether the person producing such evidence is in a position H to furnish certificate under Section 65-B(4).
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A 26. Sections 65-A and 65-B of the Evidence Act, 1872 cannot be held to be a complete code on the subject. In Anvar P.V., this Court in para 24 clarified that primary evidence of electronic record was not covered under Sections 65-A and 65-B of the Evidence Act. Primary evidence is the document produced before the Court B and the expression “document” is defined in Section 3 of the Evidence Act to mean any matter expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figures or marks, or by more than one of those means, intended to be used, or which may be used, for the purpose of recording that matter.
27. The term “electronic record” is defined in Section 2(1)(t) of C the Information Technology Act, 2000 as follows: “2.(1)(t) “electronic record” means data, record or data generated, image or sound stored, received or sent in an electronic form or micro film or computer generated micro fiche;”
D 28. The expression “data” is defined in Section 2(1)(o) of the Information Technology Act as follows: “2.(1)(o) “data” means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts or instructions which are being prepared or have been prepared in a formalised manner, and is intended to be E processed, is being processed or has been processed in a computer system or computer network, and may be in any form (including computer printouts magnetic or optical storage media, punched cards, punched tapes) or stored internally in the memory of the computer;”
F 29. The applicability of procedural requirement under Section 65- B(4) of the Evidence Act of furnishing certificate is to be applied only when such electronic evidence is produced by a person who is in a position to produce such certificate being in control of the said device and not of the opposite party. In a case where electronic evidence is produced by a party who is not in possession of a device, applicability of Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot be held to be excluded. In such case, procedure under the said sections can certainly be invoked. If this is not so permitted, it will be denial of justice to the person who is in possession of authentic evidence/witness but on account of manner of proving, such document is kept out of consideration by the court in the
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absence of certificate under Section 65-B(4) of the Evidence Act, A which party producing cannot possibly secure. Thus, requirement of certificate under Section 65-B(4) is not always mandatory.
30. Accordingly, we clarify the legal position on the subject on the admissibility of the electronic evidence, especially by a party who is not in possession of device from which the document is B produced. Such party cannot be required to produce certificate under Section 65-B(4) of the Evidence Act. The applicability of requirement of certificate being procedural can be relaxed by the court wherever interest of justice so justifies.”
3737. It may be noted that the judgments referred to in paragraph C 21 of Shafhi Mohammed (supra) are all judgments before the year 2000, when Amendment Act 21 of 2000 first introduced Sections 65A and 65B into the Evidence Act and can, therefore, be of no assistance on interpreting the law as to admissibility into evidence of information contained in electronic records. Likewise, the judgment cited in paragraph 22, namely Tukaram S. Dighole v. Manikrao Shivaji Kokate (2010) D 4 SCC 329 is also a judgment which does not deal with Section 65B. In fact, paragraph 20 of the said judgment states the issues before the Court as follows: “20. However, in the present case, the dispute is not whether a cassette is a public document but the issues are whether: E
(i) the finding by the Tribunal that in the absence of any evidence to show that the VHS cassette was obtained by the appellant from the Election Commission, the cassette placed on record by the appellant could not be treated as a public document is perverse; and F (ii) a mere production of an audio cassette, assuming that the same is a certified copy issued by the Election Commission, is per se conclusive of the fact that what is contained in the cassette is the true and correct recording of the speech allegedly delivered by the respondent or his agent?” G The second issue was answered referring to judgments which did not deal with Section 65B at all.
3838. Much succour was taken from the three Judge Bench decision in Tomaso Bruno (supra) in paragraph 23, which, as has been stated H
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A hereinabove, does not state the law on Section 65B correctly. Anvar P.V. (supra) was referred to in paragraph 24, but surprisingly, in paragraph 26, the Court held that Sections 65A and 65B cannot be held to be a complete Code on the subject, directly contrary to what was stated by a three Judge Bench in Anvar P.V. (supra). It was then “clarified” that the requirement of a certificate under Section 64B(4), being procedural, B can be relaxed by the Court wherever the interest of justice so justifies, and one circumstance in which the interest of justice so justifies would be where the electronic device is produced by a party who is not in possession of such device, as a result of which such party would not be in a position to secure the requisite certificate. C
3939. Quite apart from the fact that the judgment in Shafhi Mohammad (supra) states the law incorrectly and is in the teeth of the judgment in Anvar P.V. (supra), following the judgment in Tomaso Bruno (supra) - which has been held to be per incuriam hereinabove - the underlying reasoning of the difficulty of producing a certificate by a D party who is not in possession of an electronic device is also wholly incorrect.
4040. As a matter of fact, Section 165 of the Evidence Act empowers a Judge to order production of any document or thing in order to discover or obtain proof of relevant facts. Section 165 of the Evidence Act states as follows: “Section 165. Judge’s power to put questions or order production.- The Judge may, in order to discover or to obtain proper proof of relevant facts, ask any question he pleases, in any form, at any time, of any witness, or of the parties about any fact relevant or irrelevant; and may order the production of any document or thing; and neither the parties nor their agents shall be entitled to make any objection to any such question or order, nor, without the leave of the Court, to cross-examine any witness upon any answer given in reply to any such question. Provided that the judgment must be based upon facts declared by this Act to be relevant, and duly proved: Provided also that this section shall not authorize any Judge to compel any witness to answer any question or to produce any document which such witness would be entitled to refuse to answer or produce under sections 121 to 131, both inclusive, if the question were asked or the document were called for by the adverse party;
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nor shall the Judge ask any question which it would be improper A for any other person to ask under section 148 or 149; nor shall he dispense with primary evidence of any document, except in the cases hereinbefore excepted.
4141. Likewise, under Order XVI of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 (“CPC”) which deals with ‘Summoning and Attendance of Witnesses’, B the Court can issue the following orders for the production of documents: “6. Summons to produce document.—Any person may be summoned to produce a document, without being summoned to give evidence; and any person summoned merely to produce a document shall be deemed to have complied with the summons if he causes such document to be produced instead of attending personally to produce the same.
7. Power to require persons present in Court to give evidence or produce document.—Any person present in Court may be required by the Court to give evidence or to produce any document then and there in his possession or power. xxx xxx xxx
10. Procedure where witness fails to comply with summons.—(1) Where a person has been issued summons either to attend to give evidence or to produce a document, fails to attend or to produce the document in compliance with such summons, the Court— (a) shall, if the certificate of the serving officer has not been verified by the affidavit, or if service of the summons has affected by a party or his agent, or (b) may, if the certificate of the serving officer has been so verified, examine on oath the serving officer or the party or his agent, as the case may be, who has effected service, or cause him to be so examined by any Court, touching the service or non-service of the summons. (2) Where the Court sees reason to believe that such evidence or production is material, and that such person has, without lawful excuse, failed to attend or to produce the document in compliance with such summons or has intentionally avoided service, it may issue a proclamation requiring him to attend to give evidence or to produce the document at a time and place to be named therein; and a copy of such proclamation shall be affixed on the outer door or other conspicuous part of the house in which he ordinarily resides.
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A (3) In lieu of or at the time of issuing such proclamation, or at any time afterwards, the Court may, in its discretion, issue a warrant, either with or without bail, for the arrest of such person, and may make an order for the attachment of his property to such amount as it thinks fit, not exceeding the amount of the costs of attachment and of any fine which may be imposed under rule 12: B Provided that no Court of Small Causes shall make an order for the attachment of immovable property.”
4242. Similarly, in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (“CrPC”), the Judge conducting a criminal trial is empowered to issue the following orders for production of documents: “91. Summons to produce document or other thing.—(1) Whenever any Court or any officer in charge of a police station considers that the production of any document or other thing is necessary or desirable for the purposes of any investigation, inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Code by or before such Court or officer, such Court may issue a summons, or such officer a written order, to the person in whose possession or power such document or thing is believed to be, requiring him to attend and produce it, or to produce it, at the time and place stated in the summons or order. E (2) Any person required under this section merely to produce a document or other thing shall be deemed to have complied with the requisition if he causes such document or thing to be produced instead of attending personally to produce the same.
F (3) Nothing in this section shall be deemed— (a) to affect sections 123 and 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), or the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 1891 (13 of 1891), or (b) to apply to a letter, postcard, telegram or other document or any parcel or thing in the custody of the postal or telegraph authority.” “349. Imprisonment or committal of person refusing to answer or produce document.—If any witness or person called to produce a document or thing before a Criminal Court refuses to answer such questions as are put to him or to produce any document or thing in his possession or power which the Court requires him to produce, and does not, after a reasonable opportunity has been given to him so to do, offer any reasonable
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excuse for such refusal, such Court may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, sentence him to simple imprisonment, or by warrant under the hand of the Presiding Magistrate or Judge commit him to the custody of an officer of the Court for any term not exceeding seven days, unless in the meantime, such person consents to be examined and to answer, or to produce the document or thing and in the event of his persisting in his refusal, he may be dealt with according to the provisions of section 345 or section 346.”
4343. Thus, it is clear that the major premise of Shafhi Mohammad (supra) that such certificate cannot be secured by persons who are not in possession of an electronic device is wholly incorrect. An application can always be made to a Judge for production of such a certificate from the requisite person under Section 65B(4) in cases in which such person refuses to give it.
4444. Resultantly, the judgment dated 03.04.2018 of a Division Bench of this Court reported as (2018) 5 SCC 311, in following the law incorrectly laid down in Shafhi Mohammed (supra), must also be, and is hereby, overruled.
4545. However, a caveat must be entered here. The facts of the present case show that despite all efforts made by the Respondents, both through the High Court and otherwise, to get the requisite certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act from the authorities concerned, yet the authorities concerned wilfully refused, on some pretext or the other, to give such certificate. In a fact-circumstance where the requisite certificate has been applied for from the person or the authority concerned, and the person or authority either refuses to give such certificate, or does not reply to such demand, the party asking for such certificate can apply to the Court for its production under the provisions aforementioned of the Evidence Act, CPCor CrPC. Once such application is made to the Court, and the Court then orders or directs that the requisite certificate be produced by a person to whom it sends a summons to produce such certificate, the party asking for the certificate has done all that he can possibly do to obtain the requisite certificate.Two G Latin maxims become important at this stage. The first is lex non cogit ad impossibilia i.e. the law does not demand the impossible, and impotentia excusat legem i.e. when there is a disability that makes it impossible to obey the law, the alleged disobedience of the law is excused. This was well put by this Court in Re: Presidential Poll (1974) 2 SCC H 33 as follows:
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A “14. If the completion of election before the expiration of the term is not possible because of the death of the prospective candidate it is apparent that the election has commenced before the expiration of the term but completion before the expiration of the term is rendered impossible by an act beyond the control of human agency. The necessity for completing the election before the expiration of the term is enjoined by the Constitution in public and State interest to see that the governance of the country is not paralysed by non-compliance with the provision that there shall be a President of India.
15. The impossibility of the completion of the election to fill the vacancy in the office of the President before the expiration of the term of office in the case of death of a candidate as may appear from Section 7 of the 1952 Act does not rob Article 62(1) of its mandatory character. The maxim of law impotentia excusat legam is intimately connected with another maxim of law lex non cogit ad impossibilia. Impotentia excusat legam is that when there is a necessary or invincible disability to perform the mandatory part of the law that impotentia excuses. The law does not compel one to do that which one cannot possibly perform. “Where the law creates a duty or charge, and the party is disabled to perform it, without any default in him, and has no remedy over it, there the law will in general excuse him.” Therefore, when it appears that the performance of the formalities prescribed by a statute has been rendered impossible by circumstances over which the persons interested had no control, like the act of God, the circumstances will be taken as a valid excuse. Where the act of God prevents the compliance of the words of a statute, the statutory provision is not denuded of its mandatory character because of supervening impossibility caused by the act of God. (See Broom’s Legal Maxims 10th Edn. at pp. 162-163 and Craies on Statute Law 6th Edn. at p. 268).” G It is important to note that the provision in question in Re Presidential Poll (supra) was also mandatory, which could not be satisfied owing to an act of God, in the facts of that case. These maxims have been applied by this Court in different situations in other election cases – see Chandra Kishore Jha v. Mahavir Prasad and Ors. (1999) 8 SCC 266 (at paragraphs 17 and 21); Special Reference 1 of H
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2002 (2002) 8 SCC 237 (at paragraphs 130 and 151) and Raj Kumar A Yadav v. Samir Kumar Mahaseth and Ors. (2005) 3 SCC 601 (at paragraphs 13 and 14).
4646. These Latin maxims have also been applied in several other contexts by this Court. In Cochin State Power and Light Corporation v. State of Kerala (1965) 3 SCR 187, a question arose as to the exercise of an option of purchasing an undertaking by the State Electricity Board under Section 6(4) of the Indian Electricity Act, 1910. The provision required a notice of at least 18 months before the expiry of the relevant period to be given by such State Electricity Board to the State Government.Since this mandatory provision was impossible of compliance, it was held that the State Electricity Board was excused from giving such notice, as follows: “Sub-section (1) of Section 6 expressly vests in the State Electricity Board the option of purchase on the expiry of the relevant period specified in the license. But the State Government claims that under sub-section (2) of Section 6 it is now vested with the option. Now, under sub-section (2) of Section 6, the State Government would be vested with the option only “where a State Electricity Board has not been constituted, or if constituted, does not elect to purchase the undertaking”. It is common case that the State Electricity Board was duly constituted. But the State Government E claims that the State Electricity Board did not elect to purchase the undertaking. For this purpose, the State Government relies upon the deeming provisions of sub-section (4) of Section 6, and contends that as the Board did not send to the State Government any intimation in writing of its intention to exercise the option as required by the sub-section, the Board must be deemed to have elected not to purchase the undertaking. Now, the effect of sub- section (4) read with sub-section (2) of Section 6 is that on failure of the Board to give the notice prescribed by sub-section (4), the option vested in the Board under sub-section (1) of Section 6 was liable to be divested. Sub-section (4) of Section 6 imposed upon the Board the duty of giving after the coming into force of Section 6 a notice in writing of its intention to exercise the option at least 18 months before the expiry of the relevant period. Section 6 came into force on September 5, 1959, and the relevant period expired on December 3, 1960. In the circumstances, the giving of H
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A the requisite notice of 18 months in respect of the option of purchase on the expiry of December 2, 1960, was impossible from the very commencement of Section 6. The performance of this impossible duty must be excused in accordance with the maxim, lex non cogitia ad impossibilia (the law does not compel the doing of impossibilities), and sub-section (4) of Section 6 must be construed as not being applicable to a case where compliance with it is impossible. We must therefore, hold that the State Electricity Board was not required to give the notice under sub-section (4) of Section 6 in respect of its option of purchase on the expiry of 25 years. It must follow that the Board cannot be deemed to have elected not to purchase the undertaking under sub-section (4) of Section 6. By the notice served upon the appellant, the Board duly elected to purchase the undertaking on the expiry of 25 years. Consequently, the State Government never became vested with the option of purchasing the undertaking under sub-section (2) of Section 6. The State Government must, therefore, be restrained from taking further action under its notice, Ex. G, dated November 20, 1959.”5
4747. In Raj Kumar Dubey v. Tarapada Dey and Ors. (1987) 4 SCC 398, the maxim non cogit ad impossibilia was applied in the context of the applicability of a mandatory provision of the Registration Act, 1908, as follows: E “6. We have to bear in mind two maxims of equity which are well settled, namely, actus curiae neminem gravabit — An act of the Court shall prejudice no man. In Broom’s Legal Maxims, 10th Edn., 1939 at page 73 this maxim is explained that this maxim was founded upon justice and good sense; and afforded a safe and certain guide for the administration of the law. The above maxim should, however, be applied with caution. The other maxim is lex non cogit ad impossibilia (Broom’s Legal Maxims — page 162) — The law does not compel a man to do that which he cannot possibly perform. The law itself and the administration of it, said Sir W. Scott, with reference to an alleged infraction of the revenue laws, must yield to that to which everything must bend, to necessity; the law, in its most positive and peremptory injunctions, is understood to disclaim, as it does in its general aphorisms, all intention of compelling impossibilities, and the administration of 5 H (1965) 3 SCR 187, at 193.
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laws must adopt that general exception in the consideration of all A particular cases.
7. In this case indisputably during the period from 26-7-1978 to December 1982 there was subsisting injunction preventing the arbitrators from taking any steps. Furthermore, as noted before the award was in the custody of the court, that is to say, 28-1- B 1978 till the return of the award to the arbitrators on 24-11-1983, arbitrators or the parties could not have presented the award for its registration during that time. The award as we have noted before was made on 28-11-1977 and before the expiry of the four months from 28-11-1977, the award was filed in the court pursuant to the order of the court. It was argued that the order made by the court directing the arbitrators to keep the award in the custody of the court was wrong and without jurisdiction, but no arbitrator could be compelled to disobey the order of the court and if in compliance or obedience with court of doubtful jurisdiction, he could not take back the award from the custody of the court to take any further steps for its registration then it cannot be said that he has failed to get the award registered as the law required. The aforesaid two legal maxims — the law does not compel a man to do that which he cannot possibly perform and an act of the court shall prejudice no man would, apply with full vigour in the facts of this case and if that is the position then the award as we have noted before was presented before the Sub-Registrar, Arambagh on 25-11-1983 the very next one day of getting possession of the award from the court. The Sub-Registrar pursuant to the order of the High Court on 24-6-1985 found that the award was presented within time as the period during which the judicial proceedings were pending that is to say, from 28-1- 1978 to 24-11-1983 should be excluded in view of the principle laid down in Section 15 of the Limitation Act, 1963. The High Court, therefore, in our opinion, was wrong in holding that the only period which should be excluded was from 26-7-1978 till 20- G 12-1982. We are unable to accept this position. 26-7-1978 was the date of the order of the learned Munsif directing maintenance of status quo and 20-12-1982 was the date when the interim injunction was vacated, but still the award was in the custody of the court and there is ample evidence as it would appear from the narration of events hereinbefore made that the arbitrators had H
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A tried to obtain the custody of the award which the court declined to give to them.”
4848. These maxims have also been applied to tenancy legislation – see M/s B.P. Khemka Pvt. Ltd. v. Birendra Kumar Bhowmick and Anr. (1987) 2 SCC 401 (at paragraph 12), and have also been applied to relieve authorities of fulfilling their obligation to allot plots when such plots have been found to be un-allottable, owing to the contravention of Central statutes – see Hira Tikoo v. U.T., Chandigarh and Ors. (2004) 6 SCC 765 (at paragraphs 23 and 24).
4949. On an application of the aforesaid maxims to the present case, it is clear that though Section 65B(4) is mandatory, yet, on the facts of this case, the Respondents, having done everything possible to obtain the necessary certificate, which was to be given by a third-party over whom the Respondents had no control, must be relieved of the mandatory obligation contained in the said sub-section.
5050. We may hasten to add that Section 65B does not speak of the stage at which such certificate must be furnished to the Court. In Anvar P.V. (supra), this Court did observe that such certificate must accompany the electronic record when the same is produced in evidence. We may only add that this is so in cases where such certificate could be procured by the person seeking to rely upon an electronic record. However, in cases where either a defective certificate is given, or in cases where such certificate has been demanded and is not given by the concerned person, the Judge conducting the trial must summon the person/persons referred to in Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, and require that such certificate be given by such person/persons. This, the trial Judge ought to do when the electronic recordis produced in evidence before him without the requisite certificate in the circumstances aforementioned.This is, of course, subject to discretion being exercised in civil cases in accordance with law, and in accordance with the requirements of justice on the facts of each case. When it comes to criminal trials, it is important to keep in mind the general principle that the accused must be supplied all documents that the prosecution seeks to rely upon before commencement of the trial, under the relevant sections of the CrPC.
5151. In a recent judgment, a Division Bench of this Court in State of Karnataka v. M.R. Hiremath (2019) 7 SCC 515, after referring to Anvar P.V. (supra) held: H
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“16. The same view has been reiterated by a two-Judge Bench A of this Court in Union of India v. Ravindra V. Desai [(2018) 16 SCC 273]. The Court emphasised that non-production of a certificate under Section 65-B on an earlier occasion is a curable defect. The Court relied upon the earlier decision in Sonu v. State of Haryana [(2017) 8 SCC 570], in which it was held: B “32. … The crucial test, as affirmed by this Court, is whether the defect could have been cured at the stage of marking the document. Applying this test to the present case, if an objection was taken to the CDRs being marked without a certificate, the court could have given the prosecution an opportunity to C rectify the deficiency.”
17. Having regard to the above principle of law, the High Court erred in coming to the conclusion that the failure to produce a certificate under Section 65-B(4) of the Evidence Act at the stage when the charge-sheet was filed was fatal to the prosecution. D The need for production of such a certificate would arise when the electronic record is sought to be produced in evidence at the trial. It is at that stage that the necessity of the production of the certificate would arise.”
5252. It is pertinent to recollect that the stage of admitting documentary evidence in a criminal trial is the filing of the charge-sheet. E When a criminal court summons the accused to stand trial, copies of all documents which are entered in the charge-sheet/final report have to be given to the accused. Section 207 of the CrPC, which reads as follows,is mandatory6. Therefore, the electronic evidence, i.e. the computer output, has to be furnished at the latest before the trial begins. The reason is not F 6 Section 207. Supply to the accused of copy of police report and other documents.- In any case where the proceeding has been instituted on a police report, the Magistrate shall without delay furnish to the accused, free of costs, a copy of each of the following:- (i) the police report; (ii) the first information report recorded under section 154; G (iii) the statements recorded under sub-section (3) of section 161 of all persons whom the prosecution proposes to examine as its witnesses, excluding therefrom any part in regard to which a request for such exclusion has been made by the police officer under sub-section (6) of section 173; (iv) the confessions and statements, if any, recorded under section 164; H
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A far to seek; this gives the accused a fair chance to prepare and defend the charges levelled against him during the trial. The general principle in criminal proceedings therefore, is to supply to the accused all documents that the prosecution seeks to rely upon before the commencement of the trial. The requirement of such full disclosure is an extremely valuable right and an essential feature of the right to a fair trial as it enables the B accused to prepare for the trial before its commencement.
5353. In a criminal trial, it is assumed that the investigation is completed and the prosecution has, as such, concretised its case against an accused before commencement of the trial. It is further settled law that the prosecution ought not to be allowed to fill up any lacunae during C a trial. As recognised by this Court in Central Bureau of Investigation v. R.S. Pai (2002) 5 SCC 82, the only exception to this general rule is if the prosecution had ‘mistakenly’ not filed a document, the said document can be allowed to be placed on record. The Court held as follows: “7. From the aforesaid sub-sections, it is apparent that normally, the investigating officer is required to produce all the relevant documents at the time of submitting the charge-sheet. At the same time, as there is no specific prohibition, it cannot be held that the additional documents cannot be produced subsequently. If some mistake is committed in not producing the relevant documents at the time of submitting the report or the charge-sheet, it is always open to the investigating officer to produce the same with the permission of the court.”
5454. Therefore, in terms of general procedure, the prosecution is obligated to supply all documents upon which reliance may be placed to an accused before commencement of the trial. Thus, the exercise of power by the courts in criminal trials in permitting evidence to be filed at
(v) any other document or relevant extract thereof forwarded to the Magistrate with the police report under sub-section (5) of section 173: Provided that the Magistrate may, after perusing any such part of a statement as is referred to in clause (iii) and considering the reasons given by the police officer for the request, direct that a copy of that part of the statement or of such portion thereof as the Magistrate thinks proper, shall be furnished to the accused: Provided further that if the Magistrate is satisfied that any document referred to in clause (v) is voluminous, he shall, instead of furnishing the accused with a copy thereof, direct that he will only be allowed to inspect it either personally or through pleader in H Court.”
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a later stage should not result in serious or irreversible prejudice to the A accused. A balancing exercise in respect of the rights of parties has to be carried out by the court, in examining any application by the prosecution under Sections 91 or 311 of the CrPC or Section 165 of the Evidence Act. Depending on the facts of each case, and the Court exercising discretion after seeing that the accused is not prejudiced by want of a B fair trial, the Court may in appropriate cases allow the prosecution to produce such certificate at a later point in time.If it is the accused who desires to produce the requisite certificate as part of his defence, this again will depend upon the justice of the case - discretion to be exercised by the Court in accordance with law.
5555. The High Court of Rajasthan in Paras Jain v. State of C Rajasthan 2015 SCC OnLine Raj 8331, decided a preliminary objection that was raised on the applicability of Section 65B to the facts of the case. The preliminary objection raised was framed as follows: “3. (i) Whether transcriptions of conversations and for that matter CDs of the same filed alongwith the charge-sheet are not admissible in evidence even at this stage of the proceedings as certificate as required u/Sec. 65-B of the Evidence Act was not obtained at the time of procurement of said CDs from the concerned service provider and it was not produced alongwith charge-sheet in the prescribed form and such certificate cannot be filed subsequently.” After referring to Anvar P.V. (supra), the High Court held: “15. Although, it has been observed by Hon’ble Supreme Court that the requisite certificate must accompany the electronic record pertaining to which a statement is sought to be given in evidence when the same is produced in evidence, but in my view it does not mean that it must be produced alongwith the charge-sheet and if it is not produced alongwith the charge-sheet, doors of the Court are completely shut and it cannot be produced subsequently in any circumstance. Section 65-B of the Evidence Act deals with admissibility of secondary evidence in the form of electronic record and the procedure to be followed and the requirements be fulfilled before such an evidence can be held to be admissible in evidence and not with the stage at which such a certificate is to be produced before the Court. One of the principal issues arising for H
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A consideration in the above case before Hon’ble Court was the nature and manner of admission of electronic records.
16. From the facts of the above case it is revealed that the election of the respondent to the legislative assembly of the State of Kerala was challenged by the appellant-Shri Anwar P.V. by way of an election petition before the High Court of Kerala and it was dismissed vide order dated 16.11.2011 by the High Court and that order was challenged by the appellant before Hon’ble Supreme Court. It appears that the election was challenged on the ground of corrupt practices committed by the respondent and in support thereof some CDs were produced alongwith the election petition, but even during the course of trial certificate as required under Section 65-B of the Evidence Act was not produced and the question of admissibility of the CDs as secondary evidence in the form of electronic record in absence of requisite certificate was considered and it was held that such electronic record is not admissible in evidence in absence of the certificate. It is clear from the facts of the case that the question of stage at which such electronic record is to be produced was not before the Hon’ble Court.
17. It is to be noted that it has been clarified by Hon’ble Court E that observations made by it are in respect of secondary evidence of electronic record with reference to Sections 59, 65-A and 65- B of the Evidence Act and if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence without compliance with the conditions in Section 65-B of the Evidence Act. F
18. To consider the issue raised on behalf of the petitioners in a proper manner, I pose a question to me whether an evidence and more particularly evidence in the form of a document not produced alongwith the charge-sheet cannot be produced subsequently in any circumstances. My answer to the question is in negative and in my opinion such evidence can be produced subsequently also as it is well settled legal position that the goal of a criminal trial is to discover the truth and to achieve that goal, the best possible evidence is to be brought on record.
19. Relevant portion of sub-sec. (1) of Sec. 91 Cr.P.C. provides that whenever any Court considers that the production of any
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document is necessary or desirable for the purposes of any trial under the Code by or before such Court, such Court may issue a summons to the person in whose possession or power such document is believed to be, requiring him to attend and produce it or to produce it, at the time and place stated in the summons. Thus, a wide discretion has been conferred on the Court enabling it during the course of trial to issue summons to a person in whose possession or power a document is believed to be requiring him to produce before it, if the Court considers that the production of such document is necessary or desirable for the purposes of such trial. Such power can be exercised by the Court at any stage of the proceedings before judgment is delivered and the Court must exercise the power if the production of such document is necessary or desirable for the proper decision in the case. It cannot be disputed that such summons can also be issued to the complainant/ informer/victim of the case on whose instance the FIR was registered. In my considered view when under this provision Court D has been empowered to issue summons for the producment of document, there can be no bar for the Court to permit a document to be taken on record if it is already before it and the Court finds that it is necessary for the proper disposal of the case irrespective of the fact that it was not filed along with the charge-sheet. I am of the further view that it is the duty of the Court to take all steps E necessary for the production of such a document before it.
20. As per Sec. 311 Cr.P.C., any Court may, at any stage of any trial under the Code, summon any person as a witness, or examine any person in attendance, though not summoned as a witness, or recall or re-examine any person already examined; and the Court F shall summon and examine or recall and re-examine any such person if his evidence appears to it to be essential to the just decision of the case. Under this provision also wide discretion has been conferred upon the Court to exercise its power and paramount consideration is just decision of the case. In my opinion under this G provision it is permissible for the Court even to order production of a document before it if it is essential for the just decision of the case.
21. As per Section 173(8) Cr.P.C. carrying out a further investigation and collection of additional evidence even after filing H
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A of charge-sheet is a statutory right of the police and for that prior permission of the Magistrate is not required. If during the course of such further investigation additional evidence, either oral or documentary, is collected by the Police, the same can be produced before the Court in the form of supplementary charge-sheet. The prime consideration for further investigation and collection of additional evidence is to arrive at the truth and to do real and substantial justice. The material collected during further investigation cannot be rejected only because it has been filed at the stage of the trial.
22. As per Section 231 Cr.P.C., the prosecution is entitled to produce any person as a witness even though such person is not named in the charge-sheet.
23. When legal position is that additional evidence, oral or documentary, can be produced during the course of trial if in the opinion of the Court production of it is essential for the proper disposal of the case, how it can be held that the certificate as required under Section 65-B of the Evidence Act cannot be produced subsequently in any circumstances if the same was not procured alongwith the electronic record and not produced in the Court with the charge-sheet. In my opinion it is only an irregularity not going to the root of the matter and is curable. It is also pertinent to note that certificate was produced alongwith the charge-sheet but it was not in a proper form but during the course of hearing of these petitioners, it has been produced on the prescribed form.”
5656. In Kundan Singh(supra), a Division Bench of the Delhi High F Court held: “50. Anwar P.V. (supra) partly overruled the earlier decision of the Supreme Court on the procedure to prove electronic record(s) in Navjot Sandhu (supra), holding that Section 65B is a specific provision relating to the admissibility of electronic record(s) and, G therefore, production of a certificate under Section 65B(4) is mandatory. Anwar P.V. (supra) does not state or hold that the said certificate cannot be produced in exercise of powers of the trial court under Section 311 Cr.P.C or, at the appellate stage under Section 391 Cr.P.C. Evidence Act is a procedural law and in view of the pronouncement in Anwar P.V. (supra) partly overruling H
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Navjot Sandhu (supra), the prosecution may be entitled to invoke the aforementioned provisions, when justified and required. Of course, it is open to the court/presiding officer at that time to ascertain and verify whether the responsible officer could issue the said certificate and meet the requirements of Section 65B.”
5757. Subject to the caveat laid down in paragraphs 50 and 54 above, the law laid down by these two High Courts has our concurrence. So long as the hearing in a trial is not yet over, the requisite certificate can be directed to be produced by the learned Judge at any stage, so that information contained in electronic record form can then be admitted, and relied upon in evidence. C
5858. It may also be seen that the person who gives this certificate can be anyone out of several persons who occupy a ‘responsible official position’ in relation to the operation of the relevant device, as also the person who may otherwise be in the ‘management of relevant activities’ spoken of in Sub-section (4) of Section 65B. Considering that such certificate may also be given long after the electronic record has actually D been produced by the computer, Section 65B(4) makes it clear that it is sufficient that such person gives the requisite certificate to the “best of his knowledge and belief” (Obviously, the word “and” between knowledge and belief in Section 65B(4) must be read as “or”, as a person cannot testify to the best of his knowledge and belief at the same time). E
5959. We may reiterate, therefore, that the certificate required under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility of evidence by way of electronic record, as correctly held in Anvar P.V. (supra), and incorrectly “clarified” in Shafhi Mohammed (supra). Oral evidence in the place of such certificate cannot possibly suffice as Section 65B(4) is F a mandatory requirement of the law. Indeed, the hallowed principle in Taylor v. Taylor (1876) 1 Ch.D 426, which has been followed in a number of the judgments of this Court, can also be applied. Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act clearly states that secondary evidence is admissible only if lead in the manner stated and not otherwise. To hold otherwise would render Section 65B(4) otiose. G
6060. In view of the above, the decision of the Madras High Court in K. Ramajyam (supra), which states that evidence aliunde can be given through a person who was in-charge of a computer device in the place of the requisite certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act is also an incorrect statement of the law and is, accordingly, overruled. H
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6161. While on the subject, it is relevant to note that the Department of Telecommunication’s license conditions [i.e. under the ‘License for Provision of Unified Access Services’ framed in 2007, as also the subsequent ‘License Agreement for Unified License’and the ‘License Agreement for provision of internet service’] generally oblige internet service providers and providers of mobile telephony to preserve and maintain electronic call records and records of logs of internet users for a limited duration of one year7. Therefore, if the police or other individuals (interested, or party to any form of litigation) fail to secure those records - or secure the records but fail to secure the certificate - within that period, the production of a post-dated certificate (i.e. one issued after commencement of the trial) would in all probability render the data unverifiable. This places the accusedin a perilous position, as, in the event the accused wishes to challenge the genuineness of this certificate by seeking the opinion of the Examiner of Electronic Evidence under Section 45A of the Evidence Act, the electronic record (i.e. the data as to call logs in the computer of the service provider) may be missing. D
6262. To obviate this, general directions are issued to cellular companies and internet service providers to maintain CDRs and other relevant records for the concerned period (in tune with Section 39 of the Evidence Act) in a segregated and secure manner if a particular CDR or other record is seized during investigation in the said period. Concerned E parties can then summon such records at the stage of defence evidence, or in the event such data is required to cross-examine a particular witness. This direction shall be applied, in criminal trials, till appropriate directions are issued under relevant terms of the applicable licenses, or under Section 67C of the Information Technology Act, which reads as follows: F “67C. Preservation and retention of information by intermediaries.–(1) Intermediary shall preserve and retain such 7 See, Clause 41.17 of the ‘License Agreement for Provision of Unified Access Services’: “The LICENSEE shall maintain all commercial records with regard to the communications exchanged on the network. Such records shall be archived for at least G one year for scrutiny by the Licensor for security reasons and may be destroyed thereafter unless directed otherwise by the licensor”; Clause 39.20 of the ‘License Agreement for Unified License’: “The Licensee shall maintain all commercial records/ Call Detail Record (CDR)/ Exchange Detail Record (EDR)/ IP Detail Record (IPDR) with regard to the 39 communications exchanged on the network. Such records shall be archived for at least one year for scrutiny by the Licensor for security reasons and may be destroyed thereafter unless directed otherwise by the Licensor. Licensor may issue directions / H instructions from time to time with respect to CDR/IPDR/EDR.”
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information as may be specified for such duration and in such A manner and format as the Central Government may prescribe. (2) any intermediary who intentionally or knowingly contravenes the provisions of sub-section (1) shall be punished with an imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and also be liable to fine.” B
6363. It is also useful, in this context, to recollect that on 23 April 2016, the conference of the Chief Justices of the High Courts, chaired by the Chief Justice of India, resolved to create a uniform platform and guidelines governing the reception of electronic evidence. The Chief Justices of Punjab and Haryana and Delhi were required to constitute a C committee to “frame Draft Rules to serve as model for adoption by High Courts”. A five-Judge Committee was accordingly constituted on 28 July, 20188. After extensive deliberations, and meetings with several police, investigative and other agencies, the Committee finalised its report in November 2018. The report suggested comprehensive guidelines, and D recommended their adoption for use in courts, across several categories of proceedings. The report also contained Draft Rules for the Reception, Retrieval, Authentication and Preservation of Electronic Records. In the opinion of the Court, these Draft Rules should be examined by the concerned authorities, with the object of giving them statutory force, to guide courts in regard to preservation and retrieval of electronic evidence. E
6464. We turn now to the facts of the case before us. In the present case, by the impugned judgment dated 24.11.2017, Election Petition 6/2014 and Election Petition 9/2014 have been allowed and partly allowed respectively, the election of the RC being declared to be void under Section 100 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, inter alia, on the ground that as nomination papers at serial numbers 43 and 44 were not presented by the RC before 3.00 p.m. on 27.09.2014, such nomination papers were improperly accepted.
6565. However, by an order dated 08.12.2017, this Court admitted the Election Appeal of the Appellant, and stayed the impugned judgment and order.
6666. We have heard this matter after the five year Legislative Assembly term is over in November 2019.This being the case, ordinarily, 8 The Committee comprised of Rajesh Bindal, S. Muralidhar, Rajiv Sahai Endlaw, Rajiv Narain Raina and R.K. Gauba, JJ. H
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A it would be unnecessary to decide on the merits of the case before us, as the term of the Legislative Assembly is over.However, having read the impugned judgment, it is clear that the learned Single Judge was anguished by the fact that the Election Commission authorities behaved in a partisan manner by openly favouring the Appellant. Despite the fact that the reason given of “substantial compliance” with Section 65B(4) in the absence of the requisite certificate being incorrect in law, yet, considering that the Respondent had done everything in his power to obtain the requisite certificate from the appropriate authorities, including directions from the Court to produce the requisite certificate, no such certificate was forthcoming.The horse was directed to be taken to the water to drink - but it refused to drink, leading to the consequence pointed out in paragraph 49 of this judgment (supra).
6767. Even otherwise, apart from evidence contained in electronic form, the High court arrived at the following conclusion: “48.The evidence in cross examination of Smt. Mutha shows that when Labade was sent to the passage for collecting nomination forms, she continued to accept the nomination forms directly from intending candidates and their proposers in her office. Her evidence shows that on 27.9.2014 the last nomination form which was directly presented to her was form No. 38 of Anand Mhaske. E The time of receipt of this form was mentioned in the register of nomination forms as 2.55 p.m. In respect of subsequent nomination forms from Sr. Nos. 39 to 64, the time of acceptance is mentioned as 3.00 p.m. Smt. Mutha admits that the candidates of nomination form Nos. 39 to 64 (form No. 64 was the last form filed) were not present before her physically at 3.00 p.m. At the cost of repetition, F it needs to be mentioned here that form numbers of RC are 43 and 44. The oral evidence and the record like register of nomination forms does not show that form Nos. 43 and 44 were presented to RO at 2.20 p.m. of 27.9.2014. As per the evidence of Smt. Mutha and the record, one Arvind Chavan, a candidate having form Nos. G 33, 34 and 35 was present before her between 2.15 p.m. and 2.30 p.m. In nomination form register, there is no entry showing that any nomination form was received at 2.20 p.m. Form Nos. 36 and 37 of Sunil Khare were entered in the register at 2.40 p.m. Thus, according to Smt. Mutha, form No. 38, which was accepted by her directly from the candidate was tendered to her at 2.55 H
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p.m. of 27.9.2014 and after that she had done preliminary examination of form No. 38 and check list was given by her to that candidate. Thus, it is not possible that form Nos. 43 and 44 were directly handed over to Smt. Mutha by RC at 2.20 p.m. or even at 3.00 p.m. of 27.9.2014.
50. Smt. Mutha (PW 2) did not show the time as 2.20 p.m. of handing over the check list to RC and she showed the time as 3.00 p.m., but this time was shown in respect of all forms starting from Sr. Nos. 39 to 64. Thus, substantive evidence of Smt. Mutha and the aforesaid record falsifies the contention of the RC made in the pleading that he had handed over the nomination forms (form Nos. 43 and 44) directly to RO prior to 3.00 p.m., at 2.20 C p.m.”
6868. Thus, it is clear that apart from the evidence in the form of electronic record, other evidence was also relied upon to arrive at the same conclusion. The High Court’s judgment therefore cannot be faulted. D
6969. Shri Adsure, however, attacked the impugned judgment when it held that the improper acceptance of the nomination form of the RC himself being involved in the matter, no further pleadings and particulars on whether the election is “materially affected”were required, as it can be assumed that if such plea is accepted, the election would be materially affected,as the election would then be set aside. He cited a Division E Bench judgment of this Court in Rajendra Kumar Meshram v. Vanshmani Prasad Verma (2016) 10 SCC 715,wherein an election petition was filed against the appellant, inter alia, on the ground that as the appellant - the returned candidate - was a Government servant, his nomination had been improperly accepted. The Court held that the F requirement of Section 100(1)(d) of the Representation of People Act, 1951, being that the election can be set aside only if such improper acceptance of the nomination has “materially affected” the result of the election, and there being no pleading or evidence to this effect, the election petition must fail. This Court stated: G “9. As Issues 1 and 2 extracted above, have been answered in favour of the returned candidate and there is no cross-appeal, it is only the remaining issues that survive for consideration. All the said issues centre round the question of improper acceptance of the nomination form of the returned candidate. In this regard, Issue 6 which raises the question of material effect of the improper H
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A acceptance of nomination of the returned candidate on the result of the election may be specifically noticed.
10. Under Section 100(1)(d), an election is liable to be declared void on the ground of improper acceptance of a nomination if such improper acceptance of the nomination has materially affected the result of the election. This is in distinction to what is contained in Section 100(1)(c) i.e. improper rejection of a nomination which itself is a sufficient ground for invalidating the election without any further requirement of proof of material effect of such rejection on the result of the election. The above distinction must be kept in mind. Proceeding on the said basis, we find that the High Court did not endeavour to go into the further question that would be required to be determined even if it is assumed that the appellant returned candidate had not filed the electoral roll or a certified copy thereof and, therefore, had not complied with the mandatory provisions of Section 33(5) of the 1951 Act.
D 11. In other words, before setting aside the election on the above ground, the High Court ought to have carried out a further exercise, namely, to find out whether the improper acceptance of the nomination had materially affected the result of the election. This has not been done notwithstanding Issue 6 framed which is E specifically to the above effect. The High Court having failed to determine the said issue i.e. Issue 6, naturally, it was not empowered to declare the election of the appellant returned candidate as void even if we are to assume that the acceptance of the nomination of the returned candidate was improper.”
7070. On the other hand, Ms. Meenakshi Arora cited a Division Bench judgment in Mairembam Prithviraj v. Pukhrem Sharatchandra Singh (2017) 2 SCC 487. In this judgment, several earlier judgments of this Court were cited on the legal effect of not pleading or proving that the election had been “materially affected” by the improper acceptance of a nomination under Section 100(1)(d)(i) of the Representation of G People Act, 1951. After referring to Durai Muthuswami v. N. Nachiappan and Ors. 1973(2) SCC 45 and Jagjit Singh v. Dharam Pal Singh 1995 Supp (1) SCC 422, this Court then referred to a three- Judge Bench judgment in Vashist Narain Sharma v. Dev Chandra 1955 (1) SCR 509 as under: H
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“25. It was held by this Court in Vashist Narain Sharma v. Dev A Chandra [(1955) 1 SCR 509] as under: “9. The learned counsel for the respondents concedes that the burden of proving that the improper acceptance of a nomination has materially affected the result of the election lies upon the petitioner but he argues that the question can arise in one of three B ways: (1) where the candidate whose nomination was improperly accepted had secured less votes than the difference between the returned candidate and the candidate securing the next highest number of votes, C (2) where the person referred to above secured more votes, and (3) where the person whose nomination has been improperly accepted is the returned candidate himself. It is agreed that in the first case the result of the election is not D materially affected because if all the wasted votes are added to the votes of the candidate securing the highest votes, it will make no difference to the result and the returned candidate will retain the seat. In the other two cases it is contended that the result is materially affected. So far as the third case is concerned it may be readily conceded that such would be the conclusion…” E This Court then concluded: “26. Mere finding that there has been an improper acceptance of the nomination is not sufficient for a declaration that the election is void under Section 100(1)(d). There has to be further pleading and proof that the result of the election of the returned candidate was materially affected. But, there would be no necessity of any proof in the event of the nomination of a returned candidate being declared as having been improperly accepted, especially in a case where there are only two candidates in the fray. If the returned candidate’s nomination is declared to have been improperly accepted it would mean that he could not have contested the election and that the result of the election of the returned candidate was materially affected need not be proved further…”
7171. None of the earlier judgments of this Court referred to in Mairembam Prithviraj (supra) have been adverted to in Rajendra H
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A Kumar Meshram (supra) cited by Shri Adsure. In particular, the judgment of three learned Judges of this Court in Vashist Narain Sharma (supra)has specifically held that where the person whose nomination has been improperly accepted is the returned candidate himself, it may be readily conceded that the conclusion has to be that the result of the election would be “materially affected”, without there being any necessity B to pleadand prove the same. The judgment in Rajendra Kumar Meshram (supra), not having referred to these earlier judgments of a larger strength binding upon it, cannot be said to have declared the law correctly. As a result thereof, the impugned judgment of the High Court is right in its conclusion on this point also.
7272. The reference is thus answered by stating that: (a) Anvar P.V. (supra), as clarified by us hereinabove,is the law declared by this Court on Section 65B of the Evidence Act.The judgment in Tomaso Bruno (supra), being per incuriam, does not lay down the law correctly. Also, the judgment in SLP (Crl.) No. 9431 of 2011 reported as Shafhi Mohammad (supra) and the judgment dated 03.04.2018 reported as (2018) 5 SCC 311, do not lay down the law correctly and are therefore overruled. (b) The clarification referred to above is that the required certificate under Section 65B(4) is unnecessary if the original document itself is produced. This can be done by the owner of a laptop computer, computer tablet or even a mobile phone, by stepping into the witness box and proving that the concerned device, on which the original information is first stored, is owned and/or operated by him. In cases where the “computer” happens to be a part of a “computer system” or “computer network” and it becomes impossible to physically bring such system or network to the Court, then the only means of providing information contained in such electronic record can be in accordance with Section 65B(1), together with the requisite certificate under Section 65B(4). The last sentence in Anvar P.V. (supra) which reads as “…if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the G Evidence Act…” is thus clarified; it is to be read without the words “under Section 62 of the Evidence Act,…” With this clarification, the law stated in paragraph 24 of Anvar P.V. (supra) does not need to be revisited. (c) The general directions issued in paragraph 62 (supra) shall H hereafter be followed by courts that deal with electronic evidence, to
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ensure their preservation, and production of certificate at the appropriate stage. These directions shall apply in all proceedings, till rules and directions under Section 67C of the Information Technology Act and data retention conditions are formulated for compliance by telecom and internet service providers. (d) Appropriate rules and directions should be framed in exercise of the Information Technology Act, by exercising powers such as in Section 67C, and also framing suitable rules for the retention of data involved in trial of offences, their segregation, rules of chain of custody, stamping and record maintenance, for the entire duration of trials and appeals, and also in regard to preservation of the meta data to avoid corruption. Likewise, appropriate rules for preservation, retrieval and production of electronic record, should be framed as indicated earlier, after considering the report of the Committee constituted by the Chief Justice’s Conference in April, 2016.
7373. These appealsare dismissed with costs of INR One Lakh each to be paid by Shri Arjun Panditrao Khotkar (i.e. the Appellant in D C.A. Nos. 20825-20826 of 2017) to both Shri Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal and Shri Vijay Chaudhary.
V. RAMASUBRAMANIAN, J. E
1. While I am entirely in agreement with the opinion penned by R. F. Nariman, J. I also wish to add a few lines about (i) the reasons for the acrimony behind Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (hereinafter “Evidence Act”) (ii) how even with the existing rules of procedure, the courts fared well, without any legislative interference, F while dealing with evidence in analogue form, and (iii) how after machines in analogue form gave way to machines in electronic form, certain jurisdictions of the world changed their legal landscape, over a period of time, by suitably amending the law, to avoid confusions and conflicts. I. Reasons for the acrimony behind Section 65B G
2. Documentary evidence, in contrast to oral evidence, is required to pass through certain check posts, such as (i) admissibility (ii) relevancy and (iii) proof, before it is allowed entry into the sanctum. Many times, it is difficult to identify which of these check posts is required to be passed first, which to be passed next and which to be passed later. Sometimes, H
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A at least in practice, the sequence in which evidence has to go through these three check posts, changes. Generally and theoretically, admissibility depends on relevancy. Under Section 136 of the Evidence Act, relevancy must be established before admissibility can be dealt with. Therefore if we go by Section 136, a party should first show relevancy, making it the first check post and admissibility the second one. But some documents, such as those indicated in Section 68 of the Evidence Act, which pass the first check post of relevancy and the second check post of admissibility may be of no value unless the attesting witness is examined. Proof of execution of such documents, in a manner established by law, thus constitutes the third check post. Here again, proof of execution stands on a different footing than proof of contents.
3. It must also be noted that whatever is relevant may not always be admissible, if the law imposes certain conditions. For instance, a document, whose contents are relevant, may not be admissible, if it is a document requiring stamping and registration, but had not been duly stamped and registered. In other words, if admissibility is the cart, relevancy is the horse, under Section 136. But certain provisions of law place the cart before the horse and Section 65B appears to be one of them.
4. Section 136 which confers a discretion upon the Judge to decide as to the admissibility of evidence reads as follows:
136. Judge to decide as to admissibility of evidence. –– When either party proposes to give evidence of any fact, the Judge may ask the party proposing to give the evidence in what manner the alleged fact, if proved, would be relevant; and the Judge shall admit the evidence if he thinks that the fact, if proved, would be relevant, and not otherwise. If the fact proposed to be proved is one of which evidence is admissible only upon proof of some other fact, such last- mentioned fact must be proved before evidence is given of the fact first-mentioned, unless the party undertakes to give proof of such fact, and the Court is satisfied with such undertaking. If the relevancy of one alleged fact depends upon another alleged fact being first proved, the Judge may, in his discretion, either permit evidence of the first fact to be given
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before the second fact is proved, or require evidence to be A given of the second fact before evidence is given of the first fact.
5. There are three parts to Section 136. The first part deals with the discretion of the Judge to admit the evidence, if he thinks that the fact sought to be proved is relevant. The second part of Section 136 B states that if the fact proposed to be proved is one, of which evidence is admissible only upon proof of some other fact, such last mentioned fact must be proved before evidence is given of the fact first mentioned. But this rule is subject to a small concession, namely, that if the party undertakes to produce proof of the last mentioned fact later and the Court is satisfied about such undertaking, the Court may proceed to admit evidence of the first mentioned fact. The third part of Section 136 deals with the relevancy of one alleged fact, which depends upon another alleged fact being first proved. The third part of Section 136 has no relevance for our present purpose.
6. Illustration (b) under Section 136 provides an easy example of the second part of Section 136. Illustration (b) reads as follows: (b) It is proposed to prove, by a copy, the contents of a document said to be lost. The fact that the original is lost must be proved by the person proposing to produce the copy, before the copy is produced.
7. What is laid down in Section 65B as a precondition for the admission of an electronic record, resembles what is provided in the second part of Section 136. For example, if a fact is sought to be proved through the contents of an electronic record (or information contained in an electronic record), the Judge is first required to see if it is relevant, if the first part of Section 136 is taken to be applicable.
8. But Section 65B makes the admissibility of the information contained in the electronic record subject to certain conditions, including certification. The certification is for the purpose of proving that the information which constitutes the computer output was produced by a computer which was used regularly to store or process information and that the information so derived was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities.
9. In other words, if we go by the requirements of Section 136, the computer output becomes admissible if the fact sought to be proved H
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A is relevant. But such a fact is admissible only upon proof of some other fact namely, that it was extracted from a computer used regularly etc. In simple terms, what is contained in the computer output can be equated to the first mentioned fact and the requirement of a certification can be equated to the last mentioned fact, referred to in the second part of Section 136 read with Illustration (b) thereunder. B
10. But Section 65B(1) starts with a non-obstante clause excluding the application of the other provisions and it makes the certification, a precondition for admissibility. While doing so, it does not talk about relevancy. In a way, Sections 65A and 65B, if read together, mix-up both proof and admissibility, but not talk about relevancy. Section 65A refers to the procedure prescribed in Section 65B, for the purpose of proving the contents of electronic records, but Section 65B speaks entirely about the preconditions for admissibility. As a result, Section 65B places admissibility as the first or the outermost check post, capable of turning away even at the border, any electronic evidence, without any enquiry, if the conditions stipulated therein are not fulfilled.
11. The placement by Section 65B, of admissibility as the first or the border check post, coupled with the fact that a number of ‘computer systems’ (as defined in Section 2(l) of the Information Technology Act, 2000) owned by different individuals, may get involved in the production of an electronic record, with the ‘originator’ (as defined in Section 2(za) of the Information Technology Act, 2000) being different from the recipients or the sharers, has created lot of acrimony behind Section 65B, which is evident from the judicial opinion swinging like a pendulum. II. How the courts dealt with evidence in analogue form without legislative interference and the shift
12. It is a matter of fact and record that courts all over the world were quick to adapt themselves to evidence in analogue form, within the framework of archaic, centuries old rules of evidence. It was not as if evidence in analogue form was incapable of being manipulated. But the courts managed the show well by applying time tested rules for sifting the actual from the manipulated.
13. It is no doubt true that the felicity with which courts adapted themselves to appreciating evidence in analogue form was primarily due to the fact that in analogue technology, one is able to see and/ or perceive something that is happening. In analogue technology, a wave is recorded H
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or used in its original form. When someone speaks or sings, a signal is taken directly by the microphone and laid onto a tape, if we take the example of an analogue tape recorder. Both, the wave from the microphone and the wave on the tape, are analogue and the wave on the tape can be read, amplified and sent to a speaker to produce the sound. In digital technology, the analogue wave is sampled at some interval and then turned into numbers that are stored in a digital device. Therefore, what are stored, are in terms of numbers and they are, in turn, converted into voltage waves to produce what was stored.
14. The difference between something in analogue form and the same thing in digital form and the reason why digital format throws more challenges, was presented pithily in an article titled ‘Electronic C evidence and the meaning of “original”’, 1 by Stephen Mason (Barrister and recognised authority on electronic signatures and electronic evidence). Taking the example of a photograph in both types of form, the learned author says the following: For instance, a photograph taken with an analogue camera D (that is, a camera with a film) can only remain a single object. It cannot be merged into other photographs, and split off again. It remains a physical object. A photograph taken with a digital camera differs markedly. The digital object, made up of a series of zeros and the number one, can be, and E frequently is, manipulated and altered (especially in fashion magazines and for advertisements). Things can be taken out and put in to the image, in the same way the water droplets can merge and form a single, larger droplet. The new, manipulated digital image can also be divided back into its constituent parts. F
Herein lies the interesting point: when three droplets of water fuse and then separate into three droplets, it is to be questioned whether the three droplets that merge from the bigger droplet were the identical droplets that existed before they merged. In the same way, consider a digital object that has been G manipulated and added to, and the process is then reversed. The original object that was used remains (unless it was never saved independently, and the changes made to the image were 1 Stephen Mason, Electronic evidence and the meaning of “original”, 79 Amicus Curiae 26 (2009) H
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A saved in the original file), but another object, with the identical image (or near identical, depending on the system software and application software) now exists. Conceptually, it is possible to argue that the two digital images are different: one is the original, the other a copy of the original that was manipulated and returned to its original state (whatever B “original” means). But both images are identical, apart from some additional meta data that might, or might not be conclusive. However, it is apparent that the images, if viewed together, are identical – will be identical, and the viewer will not be able to determine which is the original, and which image was manipulated. In this respect, the digital images are no different from the droplets of rain that fall, merge, then divide: there is no telling whether the droplets that split are identical to the droplets that came together to form the larger droplet.
15. That courts did not have a problem with the evidence in analogue form is established by several judicial precedents, in U.K., which were also followed by our courts. A device used to clandestinely record a conversation between two individuals was allowed in Harry Parker vs. Mason2 in proving fraud on the part of the plaintiff. While Harry Parker was a civil proceeding, the principle laid down therein found acceptance in a criminal trial in R. vs. Burr and Sullivan.3 The High Court of Judiciary in Scotland admitted in evidence, the tape record of a conversation between the complainant and a black mailer, in Hopes and Lavery vs. H. M. Advocate.4 A conversation recorded in police cell overheard without any deception, beyond setting up a tape recorder without warning, was admitted in evidence in R. vs. Mills.5 F
16. Then came R. vs. Maqsud Ali6 where Marshall J. drew an analogy between tape-recordings and photographs and held that just as evidence of things seen through telescopes or binoculars have been admitted, despite the fact that those things could not be picked up by the naked eye, the devices used for recording conversations could G also be admitted, provided the accuracy of the recording can be proved and the voices recorded properly identified. 2 [1940] 2 KB 590 3 [1956] Crim LR 442 4 [1960] Crim LR 566 5 [1962] 3 All ER 298 H 6 [1965] 2 All ER 464
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17. Following the above precedents, this Court also held in S. A Pratap Singh vs. State of Punjab,7Yusaffalli Esmail Nagree vs. State of Maharashtra,8 N. Sri Rama Reddy vs. V. V. Giri,9 R.M. Malkani vs. State of Maharashtra,10 Ziyauddin Burhanuddin Bukhari vs. Brijmohan Ramdass Mehra,11 Ram Singh vs. Col. Ram Singh,12 Tukaram S. Dighole vs. Manikrao Shivaji Kokate,13 that tape records of conversations and speeches are admissible in evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, subject to certain conditions. In Ziyauddin Burhanuddin Bukhari and Tukaram S. Dighole, this Court further held that tape records constitute “document” within the meaning of the expression under Section 3 of the Evidence Act. Thus, without looking up to the law makers to come up with necessary amendments from time to time, the courts themselves developed certain rules, over a period of time, to test the authenticity of these documents in analogue form and these rules have in fact, worked well.
18. There was also an important question that bothered the courts while dealing with evidence in analogue form. It was as to whether such evidence was direct or hearsay. In The Statute of Liberty, Sapporo Maru M/S (Owners) vs. Steam Tanker Statute of Liberty (Owners),14 the film recording of a radar set of echoes of ships within its range was held to be real evidence. The court opined that there was no distinction between a photographer operating a camera manually and the observations of a barometer operator or its equivalent operation by a E recording mechanism. The Judge rejected the contention that the evidence was hearsay.
19. But when it comes to a computer output, one of the earliest of cases where the Court of Appeal had to deal with evidence in the form of a printout from a computer was in R. vs. Pettigrew.15 In that case, F the printout from a computer operated by an employee of the Bank of England was held to be hearsay. But the academic opinion about the
(1964) 4 SCR 753
8 (1967) 3 SCR 720 G 9 AIR 1972 SC 1162 10 AIR 1973 SC 157 11 (1976) 2 SCC 17 12 AIR 1986 SC 3 13 (2010) 4 SCC 329 14 [1968] 2 All ER 195 15 [1980] 71 Cr. App. R. 39 H
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A correctness of the decision was sharply divided. While Professor Smith16 considered the evidence in this case as direct and not hearsay, Professor Tapper17 took the view that the printout was partly hearsay and partly not. Professor Seng18 thought that both views were plausible.
20. But the underlying theory on the basis of which academicians critiqued the above judgment is that wherever the production of the output was made possible without human intervention, the evidence should be taken as direct. This is how the position was explained in Castle vs. Cross,19 in which the printout from the Intoximeter was held to be direct and not hearsay, on the ground that the breath alcohol value in the printout comprised information produced by the Intoximeter without the data being processed through a human brain.
21. In R vs. Robson Mitchell and Richards,20 a printout of telephone calls made on a mobile telephone was taken as evidence of the calls made and received in association with the number. The Court held “where a machine observes a fact and records it, that record states a fact. It is evidence of what the machine recorded and this was printed out. The record was not the fact but the evidence of the fact”.
22. But the facility of operating in anonymity in the cyber space, has made electronic records more prone to manipulation and consequently to a greater degree of suspicion. Therefore, law makers interfered, sometimes making things easy for courts and sometimes creating a lot of confusion. But over a period of time, certain jurisdictions have come up with reasonably good solutions. Let us now take a look at them. III. Legislative developments in U.S.A., U.K. and Canada F on the admissibility of electronic records POSITION IN USA
16 Professor Smith was a well-known authority on criminal law and law of evidence; J. C. Smith, The admissibility of statements by computer, Crim LR 387, 388 (1981). G 17 Professor Tapper is a well-known authority on law of evidence; Colin Tapper, Reform of the law of evidence in relation to the output from computers, 3 IntlJ L & Info Tech 87 (1995). 18 Professor Seng is an Associate Professor at the National University of Singapore; Daniel K B Seng, Computer output as evidence, Sing JLS 139 (1997). 19 [1984] 1 WLR 1372 20 H [1991] Crim LR 360
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23. The Federal Rules of Evidence (FRE) of the United States of A America as amended with effect from 01.12.2017 recognise the availability of more than one option to a person seeking to produce an electronic record. Under the amended rules, a person can follow either the traditional route under Rule 901 or the route of self-authentication under Rule 902 whereunder a certificate of authenticity will elevate its status. Rules 901 and 902 of FRE read as follows: Rule 901. Authenticating or Identifying Evidence (a) In General. To satisfy the requirement of authenticating or identifying an item of evidence, the proponent must produce evidence sufficient to support a finding that the item is what the proponent claims it is. (b) Examples. The following are examples only—not a complete list—of evidence that satisfies the requirement: (1) Testimony of a Witness with Knowledge. Testimony that an item is what it is claimed to be. D (2) Non expert Opinion About Handwriting. A non expert’s opinion that handwriting is genuine, based on a familiarity with it that was not acquired for the current litigation. (3) Comparison by an Expert Witness or the Trier of Fact. A E comparison with an authenticated specimen by an expert witness or the trier of fact. (4) Distinctive Characteristics and the Like. The appearance, contents, substance, internal patterns, or other distinctive characteristics of the item, taken together with all the F circumstances. (5) Opinion About a Voice. An opinion identifying a person’s voice—whether heard firsthand or through mechanical or electronic transmission or recording—based on hearing the voice at any time under circumstances that connect it with the alleged speaker. G
(6) Evidence About a Telephone Conversation. For a telephone conversation, evidence that a call was made to the number assigned at the time to:
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A (A) a particular person, if circumstances, including self- identification, show that the person answering was the one called; or (B) a particular business, if the call was made to a business and the call related to business reasonably transacted over B the telephone. (7) Evidence About Public Records. Evidence that: (A) a document was recorded or filed in a public office as authorized by law; or
C (B) a purported public record or statement is from the office where items of this kind are kept. (8) Evidence About Ancient Documents or Data Compilations. For a document or data compilation, evidence that it: D (A) is in a condition that creates no suspicion about its authenticity; (B) was in a place where, if authentic, it would likely be; and (C) is at least 20 years old when offered. E (9) Evidence About a Process or System. Evidence describing a process or system and showing that it produces an accurate result. (10) Methods Provided by a Statute or Rule. Any method of authentication or identification allowed by a federal statute F or a rule prescribed by the Supreme Court. Rule 902. Evidence That Is Self-Authenticating The following items of evidence are self-authenticating; they require no extrinsic evidence of authenticity in order to be admitted: G (1) Domestic Public Documents That Are Sealed and Signed. A document that bears: (A) a seal purporting to be that of the United States; any state, district, commonwealth, territory, or insular possession of the United States; the former Panama Canal Zone; the Trust H
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Territory of the Pacific Islands; a political subdivision of any A of these entities; or a department, agency, or officer of any entity named above; and (B) a signature purporting to be an execution or attestation. (2) Domestic Public Documents That Are Not Sealed but Are Signed and Certified. A document that bears no seal if: B
(A) it bears the signature of an officer or employee of an entity named in Rule 902(1)(A); and (B) another public officer who has a seal and official duties within that same entity certifies under seal—or its equivalent— C that the signer has the official capacity and that the signature is genuine. (3) Foreign Public Documents. A document that purports to be signed or attested by a person who is authorized by a foreign country’s law to do so. The document must be accompanied by a final certification that certifies the genuineness of the signature and official position of the signer or attester—or of any foreign official whose certificate of genuineness relates to the signature or attestation or is in a chain of certificates of genuineness relating to the signature or attestation. The certification may be made by a secretary of a United States embassy or legation; by a consul general, vice consul, or consular agent of the United States; or by a diplomatic or consular official of the foreign country assigned or accredited to the United States. If all parties have been given a reasonable opportunity to investigate the document’s F authenticity and accuracy, the court may, for good cause, either: (A) order that it be treated as presumptively authentic without final certification; or (B) allow it to be evidenced by an attested summary with or G without final certification. (4) Certified Copies of Public Records. A copy of an official record—or a copy of a document that was recorded or filed in a public office as authorized by law—if the copy is certified as correct by: H
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A (A) the custodian or another person authorized to make the certification; or (B) a certificate that complies with Rule 902(1), (2), or (3), a federal statute, or a rule prescribed by the Supreme Court. (5) Official Publications. A book, pamphlet, or other publication purporting to be issued by a public authority. (6) Newspapers and Periodicals. Printed material purporting to be a newspaper or periodical. (7) Trade Inscriptions and the Like. An inscription, sign, tag, or label purporting to have been affixed in the course of business and indicating origin, ownership, or control. (8) Acknowledged Documents. A document accompanied by a certificate of acknowledgment that is lawfully executed by a notary public or another officer who is authorized to take acknowledgments. D (9) Commercial Paper and Related Documents. Commercial paper, a signature on it, and related documents, to the extent allowed by general commercial law. (10) Presumptions Under a Federal Statute. A signature, document, or anything else that a federal statute declares to be presumptively or prima facie genuine or authentic. (11) Certified Domestic Records of a Regularly Conducted Activity. The original or a copy of a domestic record that meets the requirements of Rule 803(6)(A)–(C), as shown by a certification of the custodian or another qualified person that complies with a federal statute or a rule prescribed by the Supreme Court. Before the trial or hearing, the proponent must give an adverse party reasonable written notice of the intent to offer the record—and must make the record and certification available for inspection—so that the party has a G fair opportunity to challenge them. (12) Certified Foreign Records of a Regularly Conducted Activity. In a civil case, the original or a copy of a foreign record that meets the requirements of Rule 902(11), modified as follows: the certification, rather than complying with a federal statute or Supreme Court rule, must be signed in a H
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manner that, if falsely made, would subject the maker to a A criminal penalty in the country where the certification is signed. The proponent must also meet the notice requirements of Rule 902(11). (13) Certified Records Generated by an Electronic Process or System. A record generated by an electronic process or B system that produces an accurate result, as shown by a certification of a qualified person that complies with the certification requirements of Rule 902(11) or (12). The proponent must also meet the notice requirements of Rule 902(11). C (14) Certified Data Copied from an Electronic Device, Storage Medium, or File. Data copied from an electronic device, storage medium, or file, if authenticated by a process of digital identification, as shown by a certification of a qualified person that complies with the certification requirements of Rule 902(11) or (12). The proponent also must meet the notice requirements of Rule 902(11).
24. An important decision in the American jurisprudence on this issue was delivered by Chief Magistrate Judge of District of Maryland in Lorraine vs. Markel American Insurance Co.21 In this case, Paul Grimm, J. while dealing with a challenge to an arbitrator’s decision in an insurance dispute, dealt with the issue whether emails discussing the insurance policy in question, were admissible as evidence. The Court, while extending the applicability of Rules 901 and 902 of FRE to electronic evidence, laid down a broad test for admissibility of electronically stored information.22 This decision was rendered in 2007 and the FRE were amended in 2017. F 21241 FRD 534 (2007) 22Paragraph 2: “Whenever ESI is offered as evidence, either at trial or in summary judgment, the following evidence rules must be considered: (1) is the ESI relevant as determined by Rule 401 (does it have any tendency to make some fact that is of consequence to the litigation more or less probable than it otherwise would be); (2) if relevant under 401, is it authentic as required by Rule 901(a) (can the proponent show that the ESI is what it purports to be); (3) if the ESI is offered for its substantive truth, is it hearsay as defined by Rule 801, and if so, is it covered by an applicable exception (Rules 803, 804 and 807); (4) is the form of the ESI that is being offered as evidence an original or duplicate under the original writing rule, of if not, is there admissible secondary evidence to prove the content of the ESI (Rules 1001–1008); and (5) is the probative value of the ESI substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice or one of the other factors identified by Rule 403, such that it should be excluded despite its relevance.”
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